Burgin/Cyrus Debate on Divorce/Remarriage

 
 
 Proposition: 
 
The Bible teaches that there is a distinction in single people, 
who are divorced, that avoids adultery in a further marriage.

Affirm:  Max Burgin
Deny: Doug Cyrus

I would like to state from the beginning that I believe there is 
a Bible distinction in people who have been divorced. This 
distinction is obvious with some divorce being for fornication 
and some for a reason other than fornication. What I disagree 
with is that this distinction "avoids adultery in a further 
marriage."

I would like to state also that many of the things Max says I 
agree with. I agree that people who are loosed according to 
1Corinthians 7:27-28 have a right, given by God, to marry. I do 
not believe that God forbids a loosed person (a person who has 
never been married or who has been married but God has loosed 
them from the marriage) to marry because they have committed 
adultery. I also agree that when a divorce takes place for a 
reason other than fornication that God considers both parties to 
still be married.

To truly understand marriage divorce and remarriage (MDR) one 
must first understand exactly what marriage is. Donny Rader, in 
his book, "DIVORCE & REMARRIAGE WHAT DOES THE SCRIPTURES SAY?" 
quotes Funk and Wagnall’s concerning the definition of marriage 
which says  "Marriage is "a compact (covenant, DVR) entered into 
by a man and a woman, to live together as husband and wife" (Funk 
& Wagnall’s Standard Dictionary, P. 781).

According to Webster a covenant is "a binding and solemn 
agreement made by two or more individuals, parties, etc. to do or 
keep from doing a specified thing; compact." A more familiar word 
that we would use today would be "contract." A covenant is a 
contract. Taking this word to it's simplest meaning a covenant is 
a "bond." Webster's fifth definition of the word bond is "a 
binding agreement; covenant." When we use the words covenant, 
compact, contract, bond or binding agreement we are talking about 
the same thing. These words can be used interchangeably.

The Bible also shows that marriage is a covenant relationship. 
The original law that created marriage is Genesis 2:24 which says 
"Therefore shall a man leave his father and his mother, and shall 
cleave unto his wife: and they shall be one flesh." It is implied 
in this verse that when both parties leave their parents it is by 
agreement. Mal 2:14 further demonstrates this when it says "Yet 
ye say, Wherefore? Because the LORD hath been witness between 
thee and the wife of thy youth, against whom thou hast dealt 
treacherously: yet is she thy companion, and the wife of thy 
COVENANT." Since God created marriage He is the one who joins a 
man and a woman in marriage. This is spoken of in Matthew 9:6 
which says "Wherefore they are no more twain, but one flesh. What 
therefore God hath joined together, let not man put asunder." A 
quick study of the Bible on this subject will show that God not 
only created marriage but that He also regulates a marriage 
relationship and dictates to each party their obligations and 
restrictions.

Marriage is a contract and therefore a lawful relationship. It is 
by law that a man and a woman are bound to each other. Romans 7:2 
demonstrates this when it says "For the woman which hath an 
husband is BOUND BY THE LAW to her husband so long as he liveth; 
but if the husband be dead, she is loosed from the law of her 
husband."

The problem that I have with what Max has written is that he 
ASSUMES that when God allows a person to divorce their spouse for 
adultery that He releases both parties from the contract or 
agreement. This is not a necessary conclusion and Max has not 
shown any scripture that states nor implies that when one is 
loosed from a marriage contract both are loosed.

I would like to show what a person has to prove by the Bible in 
order to rightfully say that a divorced person has a scriptural 
right to marry again. 1Corinthians 7:27-28 gives us the 
qualifications that a person must have to prove they are loosed 
and therefore qualified to marry. 1Corinthians 7:27-28 says "Art 
thou bound unto a wife? seek not to be loosed. Art thou loosed 
from a wife? seek not a wife. But and if thou marry, thou hast 
not sinned.....".  This verse tells us that people who are loosed 
can marry without sinning.

Lets apply this test to several situations and see what the Bible 
says about each. Lets ask the question "can a man who puts his 
wife away for fornication marry again?" Matthew 19:9 says "And I 
say unto you, Whosoever shall put away his wife, except it be for 
fornication, and shall marry another, committeth adultery:......" 
If we exercise the exception rule stated in this verse the Bible 
implies that "whoever puts away his wife, for fornication, and 
marries another, does not committeth adultery." God plainly 
implies that this person can marry without sinning.

Let's ask the question: Can a person who's spouse has died marry 
again? Romans 7:3 answers this when it says "So then if, while 
her husband liveth, she be married to another man, she shall be 
called an adulteress: but if her husband be dead, she is free 
from that law; so that she is no adulteress, though she be 
married to another man." The Bible plainly states that this 
person does not sin by marrying again.

Max, this is the type of proof you must have to be able to say 
that a put away fornicator can lawfully marry again. If you 
believe that a person who has been put away for committing 
fornication is loosed you must prove it by showing that they can 
marry with out sinning (1Corinthians 7:27-28).

QUESTIONS:
1. Is there a Scriptural distinction in divorced people? 
Yes, I explained this earlier.

2. Does such a distinction mean some are spouseless while others 
are not? 
The Bible does not use the word "spouseless" but I believe you 
mean "loosed" per 1Corinthians 7:27-28. I will assume this is the 
case till you tell me differently. As I explained above only two 
people who have been married are "loosed" as far as I can see. 
These are a person who has a spouse who has died or a person who 
has put their spouse away for fornication.

3. Is it possible for spouseless people to "commit adultery" in 
marrying? 
No, if you mean loosed.

4. Can a person who is spouseless, but "guilty" of sin get 
married?  
Yes, if you mean loosed.

5. Can the "innocent" marry for any other reason than being 
spouseless? 
The person who has put their spouse away for fornication 
(innocent party) has a right to marry because they are loosed 
just like any other person who is loosed.

6. How can just one party AFTER a Scriptural divorce "commit 
adultery" by marrying again? 
As I explained above, marriage is a contract that is regulated by 
God. God can release one party from the contract without 
releasing the other. One person can still be bound by law to 
fulfill the contract and therefore still be obligated to the 
other party in the contract.

7. Is there such a thing as a half marriage? 
The Bible does not talk about half marriages but God does show us 
in his Word that marriage is a contract and gives us the test to 
determine who is "loosed" from that contract and who is not. See 
above and also refer to question number six.

8. Which marriage is adulterated? 
I am sorry but I am not sure what you are asking with this 
question.

9. Is there any difference between a marriage and a REmarriage of 
spouseless people? 
If a person is "loosed" it does not matter whether they are 
getting married the first or second time. Loosed people can marry 
without sinning.

10. Did Jesus recognize that the woman in John 4 had had five 
husbands, as opposed to a sinful relationship? 
Jesus does not go into detail as to exactly what this woman's 
situation is as far as I can see.

11. Why does the sin of adultery preclude a spouseless person the 
right to marry? 
The sin of adultery does not preclude a "loosed" person from 
marrying. The Bible plainly says that a "loosed" person can marry 
without sinning. This is how we can know a person is really 
loosed. A person who is loosed is not bound by a contract 
(binding agreement) and therefore has no one to commit adultery 
against (Mark 10:11 And he saith unto them, Whosoever shall put 
away his wife, and marry another, committeth adultery against 
her).

12. Is the woman who can be "reconciled to her husband", married 
or spouseless?  
I believe you are talking about the woman in 1Corinthians 7:11 
Which says "But and if she depart, let her remain unmarried, or 
be reconciled to her husband: and let not the husband put away 
his wife." This woman has been put away from her husband by civil 
law but without the permission of God. She still has a husband to 
be reconciled to therefore she is still in a contractual 
relationship and bound by law to her husband. She is a married 
woman.

Max, I have tried to answer you as straight forward as I know 
how. If this is not what you want then let me know and I will try 
again.

Yours in Christ,
Doug Cyrus