Burgin/Cyrus Debate on Divorce/Remarriage
Max Burgin's First Affirmative
Proposition:
The Bible teaches that there is a distinction in single people,
who are divorced, that avoids adultery in a further marriage.
Affirm: Max Burgin
Deny: Doug Cyrus
I am including an article that makes this distinction very clear
- not ALL divorced people are rightly spouseless. We are simply
not talking about THOSE who are divorced NOT in accordance to the
exception Jesus gave in Matthew 19:9, OR, about THOSE who are
"unmarried", but may be "reconciled" to a spouse - showing that
the word "unmarried" is used accommodatively and refers to the
state she is to remain in, rather than to her marital status-she
therefore IS a married woman who is NOT spouseless.
The very fact that Jesus gave an exception for divorce here,
NECESSIATES a distinction in divorced people - between THOSE
divorced, or "put away" from a marriage, in line with the
exception and those divorced for any OTHER reason.
CAN BOTH PARTIES AFTER A SCRIPTURAL DIVORCE
REMARRY WITHOUT "COMMITTING ADULTERY"?
Please note, and remember, that in this article we are NOT
talking about THOSE divorced for ANY OTHER reason than the
exception given by Jesus in Matthew 19:9.
THAT divorce is NOT valid - or recognized by God - therefore BOTH
parties are NOT spouseless, free of marriage, single - THAT is
the reason THEY "commit adultery" in a further marriage. THEY are
the wrong people to consider. THEY are NOT rightly divorced - or
"put away" from the marriage.
But THOSE who ARE rightly divorced - equally "put away" from the
marriage - ARE spouseless, free of marriage, as single as they
ever were - or possible to be - and such people can't "commit
adultery" - in marrying again - this is true of BOTH parties
whether they are "guilty" or "innocent" - THEY are the ONLY
people to consider.
Thus there IS a difference in the REmarriage of THOSE whom God
accepts as spouseless, and the OTHERS. The divorce that God
allows is NOT sin - but always the result of sin - whereas ALL
other divorces ARE sin. And THOSE who divorced without sin, may
REmarry without sin. It's interesting to observe that Paul wrote
to those who had been guilty of adultery 1Corinthians 6:9-11, and
said in 7:27-28 that if THEY were "loosed from a wife [or
spouse]", they had "not sinned" if THEY married. If that is not
clear enough Paul said in verse 2, including THEM, "let every man
have his own wife". Thus the sin of adultery - which remains
unless forgiven by God - is of no further consideration in any
action that is right for spouseless people - and marriage is
ALWAYS right for spouseless people. It's important to remember
that where there is no marriage to adulterate, adultery is
impossible. And since the Lord used the word "adultery", He
therefore was talking about a situation where a marriage exists –
He therefore was NOT talking about THOSE in a situation involving
ONLY spouseless people. It's very common to confuse these two
different situations, and form a conclusion, that is just as
confusing and wrong.
Now that the distinction is clearly in mind, the question is
asked, "Where does the Bible teach that one Scripturally
divorced, who is guilty of adultery, must remain single?"
Celibacy is NOT a punishment for ANY sin. And it will do no good
to cite passages that make the charge of adultery - they simply
do not apply to spouseless people.
The doctrine that only the "innocent party" may REmarry fails to
realize it is because THEY are spouseless - there being no
marriage to adulterate - and the exact same thing can be said for
the "guilty party" - guilty sinners, who are spouseless, may
REmarry as readily as any "innocent" spouseless person. ALL
spouseless people - whether saints or sinners - may either marry
or REmarry, without any further sin being involved. If a
spouseless adulterer REmarries AFTER being divorced, the sin
remains and is unchanged, and without God's forgiveness, is on
his way to hell, but even that does not hinder his action in
ANYTHING that is right.
Nothing apart from being a spouseless adult - "alone" Gen. 2:18 –
gives a person God's right to get married - whether sinner or not
- and ALL those Scripturally divorced fit this description - as
opposed to THOSE divorced for ANY other reason. All that is
needed is to keep the right people in mind, and make the same
conclusion applicable to ALL single people, when it comes to
marriage, or REmarriage of spouseless people - whether they be
saints or sinners.
People can ONLY "commit adultery" where a marriage is involved,
thus a spouseless person who commits such a sin with a married
person, is just as guilty of adultery as the married person –
both adulterate the marriage. But it is NOT taught that such a
person must remain single!!!! God does not REQUIRE a married
adulterer to be divorced - He allows it - neither does He require
a spouseless adulterer to remain celibate.
It is recognized that this is a very emotive issue, all the more
reason to confine oneself to the right people, and practice clear
thinking.
If guilty sinners, who are spouseless, can't marry without sin,
NO ONE could marry, for "All have sinned" Romans 3:23.
The ONLY reason a divorced person can become spouseless is to be
divorced - "put away" from the marriage in line with the
exception - because of adultery - THEY are the ONLY people we are
talking about, in this debate, and it involves BOTH the
"innocent" and "guilty" EQUALLY.
In THEM there is NO distinction in the fact they are spouseless –
the distinction exists between them AND others who are divorced
for ANY other reason. Scriptural divorce is NOT sin - but the
RESULT of sin - but ALL other divorces ARE sin in and of
themselves.
This is the distinction that will be ignored, and overlooked by
Doug Cyrus.
The simple fact is that if EITHER party "commits adultery" in a
REmarriage, BOTH do - and NEITHER do where no marriage exists –
which is the case AFTER a Scriptural divorce.
ONLY those divorced in line with the exception are spouseless in
God's sight - it's the OTHERS who "commit adultery".
The case is simple and clear, and I have proved the point. Doug
can quote no Scripture for his position, but will revert to
sophistry, and human wisdom, and emotion, to support his case.
The Bible NOWHERE says that spouseless people - saints or sinners
- "commit adultery" in a marriage - OR a REmarriage. THAT is the
point that must be proved wrong, and Doug can't do it. But watch
him try.
EVERY person Scripturally divorced - whether saint or sinner, who
is guilty of ANY sin - is rightly spouseless - and therefore may
marry, or do anything else that is right for spouseless people –
with God's blessing. God accepts such a marriage, but not the
person.
Doug, you now have the responsibility to deny the proposition,
which is not possible while you stay with the point. I call upon
you to deny that such a distinction exists - that Jesus was wrong
to give such an exception - for that is the ONLY conclusion if
YOU have the truth.
QUESTIONS:
1. Is there a Scriptural distinction in divorced people?
2. Does such a distinction mean some are spouseless while others
are not?
3. Is it possible for spouseless people to "commit adultery" in
marrying?
4. Can a person who is spouseless, but "guilty" of sin get
married?
5. Can the "innocent" marry for any other reason than being
spouseless?
6. How can just one party AFTER a Scriptural divorce "commit
adultery" by marrying again?
7. Is there such a thing as a half marriage?
8. Which marriage is adulterated?
9. Is there any difference between a marriage and a REmarriage of
spouseless people?
10. Did Jesus recognize that the woman in John 4 had had five
husbands, as opposed to a sinful relationship?
11. Why does the sin of adultery preclude a spouseless person the
right to marry?
12. Is the woman who can be "reconciled to her husband", married
or spouseless?
I expect each question answered, since they deal with the error
that is taught, but fear they will be carefully evaded and side-
stepped. Or much sophistry, and quibble, entered into.
Brotherly,
Max Burgin.