Galloway/Waters 1st Debate on Divorce/Remarriage

 
 
 Proposition: 
Jesus' teachings in Matt 19:3-12 and 5:32 were in complete harmony 
with Moses' Law, which allowed for legal divorce.
Affirm:  Robert Waters
Deny:  Brian Galloway

This proposition is important because the "traditional 
position"(which is unscriptural) that many hold on Divorce and 
Remarriage, is based upon their understanding of these passages. 
Further, if what Jesus said in these passages was in harmony with 
the Law (that people were obligated to obey), then Brian's 
understanding is without foundation. 

If it can be demonstrated that Jesus did not contradict the Law 
then all honest disciples who believe in the infallibility of 
God's word must realize that there is a logical explanation for 
Jesus' teachings that will harmonize with Moses and the teachings 
of the apostle Paul.

Questions: (please answer yes or no where possible) 

1. Was divorce allowed Under the Law of Moses (Deut24:1-4)? 

2. Under the LOM, was divorce ever commanded in some situations? 

3. Were the women (during O.T. times) that had been given a "bill 
of divorce" ever forbidden to remarry? 

4. In the O.T., is there any implication that divorced women may 
be another man's wife? 

5.  Were the practices of the Pharisees (relating to Divorce and 
Remarriage), that Jesus called adultery, wrong before Jesus said 
it? 

6.  Does Jesus state that He is not going to change the Law until 
ALL be fulfilled (Matt. 5:17-19)? 

7.  When was "all" fulfilled? 

8.  Did Jesus establish his covenant, or law, before his death? 

9.  Did Christ's will take effect before his death? 

10.  When does a "will" (which we know is the "law of Christ") 
take affect? 

11. Can you have two laws in effect at the same time? 

12. Did Jesus teach something that required action that was 
contrary to their law that was then in effect? 

13. If the answer to the above is yes, please endeavor to 
convince us why such is believable; since Jesus, in the same 
discourse, said Hews not going to change the law until all is 
fulfilled? 

14. Under the O.T. would it have been transgression (sin) for a 
man to change the Law regarding who could marry? 

15.  Was Jesus a man (1Tim2:5)? 

16.  Were the Jews taught that there would be a savior and that 
the “word of the Lord would go forth from Jerusalem"? Were John 
and Jesus authorized by the O.T. to teach the gospel? Could Jesus 
carry out His mission without sinning?  Did He transgress 
(disobey) any Law? 

17.  Did the Pharisees consider Jesus to be anything other than a 
man? 

18.  Did the Pharisees seek diligently to entrap Jesus in his 
words and to charge him with teaching against the Law of Moses? 

19.  Did the Pharisees charge Jesus with breaking the Law on any 
occasion and if so were they correct in doing so and charging Him 
with sin? 

20.  Which is most reasonable?      
a) That Jesus contradicted (broke, transgressed, violated)       
the Law under which he lived; or      
b) The Pharisees merely THOUGHT, or slanderously charged,         
that Jesus had contradicted the Law, when he actually did not?" 

21.  Did the Pharisees make any sort of charge against Jesus that 
his teaching to them regarding "MDR" was contrary to the Law?  If 
so please provide the passage. 

22.  Please explain why the Pharisees did not charge Jesus with 
teaching contrary to the Law when He answered their questions 
regarding the controversial teachings that go back to Deut. 24:1-
4? 

23.  Why would Jesus consider it prudent to change the Law on 
Divorce and Remarriage while the Law of Moses was still in effect 
(which would have been viewed as transgression) since such, if 
God intended for it to be changed, could lawfully and properly be 
addressed by his apostles when teaching New Testament doctrine to 
New Testament subjects? 

24.  Is it important to follow proper hermeneutics on all 
subjects -to include the rule that forbids construing one passage 
so as to contradict another (For example: Deut24:1-4 verses Matt. 
19:9), and the rule to consider the circumstances, such as to 
whom is being spoken and what law (or dispensation) was in effect 
at the time? 

25.  If one recognizes that it is untrue that Jesus contradicted 
Moses in his teachings on Divorce and Remarriage must they, if 
they follow rules of hermeneutics, conclude that Jesus did not 
teach against a divorced person marrying and therefore look for 
another logical conclusion?

Brotherly,

Robert Waters