Warner/Jackson Debate on Tradition as Religious Authority
Matt Warner's First Rebuttal
Proposition:
Scripture alone is authoritative for the Church in matters of doctrine
Affirm: George A Jackson
Deny: Matt Warner
Thank you George for your first affirmation of your proposition. As I read through your
affirmation, I can already see that I am in full agreement with most of the things that you wrote
about the verses that you quoted. But the one thing that I do disagree with is the conclusion that
these verses show that Scripture alone is authoritative. Let me respond to your points in the way
that you have them numbered:
1. You wrote,
"So we know the `all truth' will be given only to the apostles while they lived. No new doctrine, no
new truth, no new tradition. Jesus was given the truth by the Father, Jesus in turn gave the truth to
the apostles, and the Spirit was to bring to their remembrance the `all truth' that Jesus had taught
them."
I am in full agreement with this, George. After the Apostles, there is "no new doctrine, no new
truth, no new tradition." But where does this verse (which is John 16:13) say that this "all truth"
would in recorded in the written form only? It doesn't even mention the way that this truth would
be handed on to the Church. Thus, this verse does not prove that the Bible is our only authority in any way.
2. You wrote,
"Jude makes it very clear that `the faith' (gospel, Gal.1:23), was `once delivered (past tense) unto
the saints.' If the faith, at the time of Jude`s writing, had already been delivered to the saints, what
more could be delivered?"
Once again, George, I am in full agreement with this. The teachings of the faith were "once
delivered unto the saints." There is nothing else that can be added to the deposit of Faith. But
once again, where does this verse (which is Jude 3) say that this Faith was recorded in written
form only? It doesn't even mention (like the verse above) the way which the Faith was handed on
to the Church. Thus, this verse does not prove that the Bible is our only authority in any way.
3. You wrote,
"This Scripture plainly teaches that no man has the authority to add or take away from the book.
Why would God prohibit adding to His written word, but allow man to add to His word by
`tradition'?"
Even though these verses (which are Rev. 22:18-19) are only referring specifically to the book of
Revelation, I do agree that we are not to add or take away from what has been written under the
inspiration of the Holy Spirit. But the oral teachings of the Apostles are not adding or taking away
from what has been written. In fact, the oral teachings of the Apostles came before they were ever
written down, so how could they be adding or taking away from the written?
4&5. See my response above (#3) about adding or taking away for what is written. Once again,
none of these passages teach that Scripture alone is authoritative.
6. You wrote,
"From the very beginning, God's word has been true...and `every one' last forever."
Once again, I fully agree with you. Remember in my first affirmation I began by saying, "I
believe that the Scriptures are inspired of God and are authoritative in the Church for matters of
doctrine. They are the very words of God, and they deserve our utmost reverence and obedience."
But, as with your other points, this does not teach that Scripture is our only authority.
7. You wrote,
"Every word spoken or written did not come from the private thoughts or imagination of the holy
men, but came from the Holy Spirit, as He moved them to speak or write."
I agree again (see my response in #6). Once again, though, this does not teach that Scripture is our
only authority. It only teaches of the inspiration of the Scriptures, and I fully agree with this.
8. You wrote,
"Here we have from Jesus Christ Himself that the `scripture cannot be broken' or `is true forever'
Jesus is speaking of the `written word of God'."
I agree again (see my response in #6). Once again, though, this does not teach that Scripture is our
only authority. It only teaches that God's written word cannot be broken and is eternally true, and
I fully agree with this.
9. Referring to the temptation of Christ, you wrote,
"Never once did Jesus make reference to any other source than the `written word'."
I agree that Jesus responded to Satan by using the Scriptures. But does that prove that Scripture
alone is authoritative? No, not at all. I use the Scriptures also when I am being tempted. Does
that mean that I believe that Scripture alone is authoritative? No. Once again, this passage does
not teach that Scripture alone is authoritative. It only shows that Jesus used the Scriptures against
Satan, as do I.
10. You wrote,
"How does one err? `not knowing the scriptures'!"
Once again, George, I am in full agreement with you. One can go into error when they do not
know the Scriptures. But how does this prove that Scripture is our only authority?
11. You wrote,
"If one speaks not according to God's word, `it is because there is no light in them'."
I fully agree again. If one teaches contrary to the written word of God, then there is "no light in
them." But, again, how does this prove that Scripture is our only authority? It simply teaches that
the written word is authoritative, which I have affirmed myself.
12. You wrote,
"What testifies of Christ? the scriptures!"
Very true! But, again, how does this prove that Scripture is our only authority?
13. And finally, you wrote,
"`But these are written' Why? `that ye might believe'."
Once again, very true! The Apostle John wrote his Gospel so that we might believe in Christ. But,
again, how does this prove that Scripture is our only authority?
So George, in conclusion, you did a GREAT job of showing the inspiration, truthfulness, and
reliability of the Scriptures. (All of which I affirmed in my three affirmations.) But what you did
not do is show us is where the Scriptures teach that they ALONE are authoritative for the Church
in matters of doctrine. None of the verses and passages that you posted proves your affirmation.
With His Love,
Matt Warner