Strom/Mowery Debate on Premillenialism

 
 
 Proposition: 
 The thousand years of Rev 20 are real literal years that start 
 with the literal return of Christ and the real resurrection of 
 the righteous as described in 1Thess 4 and Rev 20.
 
 Affirmed:  Bob Strom
 Deny:   Dub Mowery
 
 Bob, the crux of our discussion must be based upon the fact that 
 the book of Revelation is written in highly symbolic terminology.  
 I remind you again that at Revelation 1:1 the Apostle John sets 
 the stage for the book of Revelation.  It states in that very 
 first verse that it was "signified" unto John.  It was given in 
 symbolic language.  This last book of the Bible is in a literary 
 form known as apocalyptic, which means that it is put forth by a 
 series of visions in symbolic language.  Usually we interpret 
 language to be literal as the normal rule and figurative as the 
 exception.  But in the book of Revelation John tells us that the 
 normal rule for that book is figurative and therefore the 
 exception is literal.
 
 Although figurative language is used, that does not mean that it 
 is not true.  Jesus is referred to as a lamb.  In portraying Him 
 as a lamb reveals the truth of both His innocence and His 
 worthiness as the perfect sacrifice for our sins.  Bob, do you 
 believe that figurative language is true?  You are mistakenly 
 comparing that which is literal to that which is figurative.  In 
 II Peter, chapter 3 and verse 8, in particular, the Apostle Peter 
 emphasizes that the amount of time transpired does not hinder the 
 Lord in fulfilling His promises.  He makes a comparison between a 
 day and a thousand years.  There is no indication that the 
 epistle of II Peter is to be understood as having been written 
 in figurative and symbolic language.  But the very first verse of 
 Revelation declares that it is written in symbolic language.  
 Therefore, your comparison of a literal 1,000 years at II Peter 
 3:8 with the figurative 1,000 years in the 20th chapter of 
 Revelation will not hold water.
 
 Those who uphold the premillenial theory depend primarily upon 
 their interpretation of the first six verses of the 20th chapter 
 of Revelation.  If that concept were true, it is strange that it 
 is not mentioned elsewhere in the Bible, and in particular the 
 remaining books of the New Testament.  Jesus Christ, Himself, 
 never discussed the concept of premillenialism.  The term 
 premillenial, of course, is not found in the Bible.  The word 
 "millennium" is derived from two Latin terms: mille, denoting a 
 thousand, and annum, meaning a year.  The combination of those 
 two words means a thousand years.  The prefix "pre" means prior 
 to, beforehand.  Those who uphold some phase of the premillenial 
 concept of Christ returning to earth prior to reigning a thousand 
 years various with the different religious groups that teach 
 premillenialism.  Most of those who believe in premillenialism 
 claim that the Son of God will literally reign here upon earth 
 for 1,000 years in an earthly type kingdom.  Others claim that 
 all of the unrighteous will be literally slain at the second 
 coming of Christ.  The Son of God will then resurrect the 
 righteous dead, and they along with the righteous living will be 
 taken by the Lord to heaven for a literal thousand years.  At the 
 end of that period, return to earth to resurrect the unrighteous 
 and condemn them to their eternal doom.  None of these concepts 
 are taught anywhere in either the Old Testament or the New 
 Testament.  What few passages in which you have used or more 
 correctly misused do not teach anything to a first cousin of the 
 various premillenial theories.  Can you find any other passages 
 in either the Old Testament or the New Testament that will uphold 
 premillenialism?  Surely you have other favorite passages to 
 present in this discussion.
 
 You refer to I Thessalonians the fourth chapter that discusses 
 the resurrection of the righteous dead and they along with the 
 righteous living rising in the air to meet Jesus Christ.  Then 
 you attempt to harmonize that passage with your erroneous 
 interpretation of Revelation 20:1-6.  First of all, in both I and 
 II Thessalonians the Apostle Paul was dealing with uncertainty 
 and apprehension within that congregation about the second coming 
 of Christ.  Paul was reassuring them that the righteous dead 
 would not lose out in the eternal home in heaven.  There was not 
 any need for Paul to discuss at that time those who had died 
 outside of Christ.  Their concern was whether or not faithful 
 Christians who died would miss out on eternal life in heaven.  
 Secondly, one passage of scripture must not contradict other 
 scripture.  After all, God is not the author of confusion (I Cor. 
 14:33).  Jesus speaks of both the righteous and the unrighteous 
 rising from their graves simultaneously, not one thousand years 
 between their resurrection.  Jesus uses the term hour to refer to 
 a definite time when both the saved and the lost will be raised.  
 Again, hear the Words of the Son of God, "Marvel not at this: for 
 the hour is coming, in the which all that are in their graves 
 shall hear his voice, And shall come forth; they that have done 
 good, unto the resurrection of life; and they that have done 
 evil, unto the resurrection of damnation"  (John 5:28,29).
 
 By your insisting that the events of Revelation, the 19th chapter 
 come before the 1,000 year period at Revelation 20:1-6 causes it 
 to conflict with I Thessalonians 4:13-17.  Verses 16 and 17 of 
 this latter scriptural references states, "For the Lord himself 
 shall descend from heaven with a shout, with the voice of the 
 archangel, and with the trump of God: and the dead in Christ 
 shall rise first: Then we which are alive and remain shall be 
 caught up together with them in the clouds, to meet the Lord in 
 the air: and so shall we ever be with the Lord."  Note, the 
 scripture reveals that both the righteous dead and the saved who 
 were alive at His appearing will rise in the air to meet the 
 Lord.  Not only that, but it says, "so shall we ever be with the 
 Lord."  There is no indication in that passage that they will be 
 in heaven for a thousand years and then return to earth for the 
 final judgment of both the righteous and those lost.  If you 
 attempt to interpret the 19th chapter, and verses 11-21 of 
 Revelation as being literal, then you have the Son of God on a 
 literal horse physically destroying every unsaved person.  The 
 truth of the matter is, He will eternally condemn them with the 
 sword of His mouth.  The sword of His mouth symbolically 
 represents the inspired Word.  The inspired Word of God is 
 portrayed elsewhere in the scriptures as a sword (Ephesians 
 6:17; Hebrews 4:12).  At John 12:48, Jesus declares, "He that 
 rejecteth me, and receiveth not my words, hath one that judgeth 
 him: the word that I have spoken, the same shall judge him in the 
 last day."  The figurative events recorded at Revelation 19:11-21 
 has reference to the universal judgment of both the righteous and 
 the unrighteous on the last day as recorded at Revelation 20:11-
 15.  Those two passages are both referring to the universal 
 judgment on the last day.
 
 It is my prayer that you will open your mind to these truths.
 
 Dub Mowery