Strom/Mowery Debate on Premillenialism

 
 
 Proposition: 
 The thousand years of Rev 20 are real literal years that start 
 with the literal return of Christ and the real resurrection of 
 the righteous as described in 1Thess 4 and Rev 20.
 
 Affirmed:  Bob Strom
 Deny:   Dub Mowery
 
 Bob, you have presented several passages of scripture in your 
 first affirmative.  I accept those scripture as being the 
 inspired Word of God. However, I reject your implied 
 interpretation of those same passages of scripture as teaching 
 Premillenialism.  You claim things that are simply not in 
 those verses.  They are not there!  Not only are your assertions 
 promoting a literal thousand-year reign not found in those 
 passages, but your interpretation of them in favor of 
 premillenialism contradicts other passages of scripture.
 
 The first resurrection mentioned by the Apostle John at 
 Revelation 20:4-6 is not referring to the resurrection of all the 
 saints at the second coming of Christ.  You are attempting to 
 read into those verses more than is there.   The inspired Word 
 limits those of this first resurrection to souls that had been 
 beheaded.  There is no mention of bodies, but the souls of saints 
 who were martyrs.  Not all faithful Christians have been or will 
 be martyred; and not all of those who had were beheaded.  Nothing 
 is stated therein of all saints being resurrected at this first 
 resurrection.  Incidentally, the term "first resurrection" is 
 used in contrast to the general resurrection of all the dead at 
 the second coming of the Son of God.  Hear the Words of Jesus, 
 "Marvel not at this:  for the hour is coming in the which all 
 that are in the graves shall hear his voice, And shall come 
 forth; they that have done good unto the resurrection of life; 
 and they that have done evil, unto the resurrection of 
 damnation"  (John 5:28, 29).  The general resurrection at the end 
 of time will include all the dead, whether they be the redeemed 
 or those who will be eternally lost.  The term "first 
 resurrection" was used figuratively and was called "first 
 resurrection" in distinguishing it from the resurrection 
 of ALL the dead at the end of time.
 
 There are a number of things pertaining to the premillenial 
 theory not found in the Bible.  In particular, the following 
 things that are essential  for premillenialism to be true, are 
 not found in the 20th chapter of Revelation.  They are:
 
 1. It does not mention the second coming of Christ.
 2. It does not mention a bodily resurrection.
 3. It does not mention a reign on earth.
 4. It does not mention a literal throne of David.
 5. It does not mention Jerusalem of Palestine (or Israel).
 6. It does not mention us.
 7. It does not mention Christ on earth.
 
 Bob, you are definitely wrong in your following statement:  
 "John helps us to understand that he is telling the literal 
 truth--with the l000 years in that we find no other case in the 
 NT (certainly not in the book of Revelation) where x-years does 
 not actually mean x-years." 
 
 Dub
 You give not one justified reason for interpreting the l000 years 
 in Revelation the 20th chapter as being literal.  Would you go as 
 far as to claim that all other things mentioned in the 20th 
 chapter as being literal rather than figurative?   These include:  
 key, the chain, the abyss, the dragon, the beast, the false 
 prophet, the thrones, the lake of fire.  Would you dare claim 
 that all of these are to be understood as literal as stated 
 rather than literal?  Where did you get that unfounded assumption 
 
 that Christ would reign here upon earth for 1000 years?  You 
 certainly did not obtain it from what the Bible teaches 
 concerning the second coming of our Lord and the end of time.  In 
 the very first verse of the book of Revelation, the Apostle John 
 reveals that the contents therein were given unto him in symbols.  
 Rev. 1:1, "The Revelation of Jesus Christ, which, God gave unto 
 him, to shew unto his servants things which must shortly come to 
 pass; and he sent and signified it by his angel unto his servant 
 John:"  The word "signified" as given in that passage means that 
 the things being revealed unto John were presented through signs 
 and symbols.  Bob, surely you would admit that the book of 
 Revelation uses symbols as figurative language.
 
 It is a gross mistake on your part to equate the symbolic 
 language in the book of Revelation with other passages of 
 scripture that is literal.  You and I agree that time does not 
 hinder the Lord in fulfilling a promise.  He can just as easily 
 fulfill a promise made a thousand years in advance as a promise 
 of only 24 hours in advance (I Pet. 3:8-9).  However, your effort 
 to compare the significance of a literal 1,000 years at I Peter 
 3:8 with the symbolic 1,000 years of Revelation, chapter 20 is 
 futile.
 
 You best heed your own warning at the close of your first 
 affirmative about making false interpretations concerning the 
 19th and 20th chapter of Revelation.  It is my prayer that the 
 two of us will continue to conduct our selves as gentlemen.  I 
 believe you to be a sincere person who genuinely believes your 
 position to be true.  Hopefully, you recognize me as also honest 
 and sincere in my convictions on the subject in which we are 
 discussing at this time.  I hold no ill will toward you, and 
 therefore refuse to knowingly belittle you in our exchange.
 
 Sincerely,
 Dub Mowery