STROM/PUCKETT DEBATE ON SABBATH

Bob Strom's Third Rebuttal

 
 
 Proposition:  
 Resolved, that the keeping of the weekly Sabbath is not scripturally 
 binding on Christians today.
 
 Affirm: James Puckett 
 Deny: Bob Strom
 
 Summary - 
 
 Heb 4 - 
 Deut 5 - National Covenant argument
 Silence in Genesis Argument
 Heb 7 - 
 Is 56
 Is 66
 Retroactive law argument
 Fulfilling the LAW argument
 Gal 3 argument
 -----------------------------------------------------------------
 Jim
 Bob's rebuttal sounds like Bob has not read either of my two 
 Affirmative speeches very carefully at all. Else how can I 
 explain his constant misrepresentation of my arguments? Many of 
 his statements as to what I say or claim or maintain are totally 
 false. I do notice that he does not quote what I said, but rather 
 characterizes what I have supposedly said in a way that makes his 
 arguments look good. Rather than answer what I have actually 
 said, it seems he would prefer to answer what he wishes I would 
 have said. I can only surmise that since he couldn't successfully 
 refute my arguments, he twisted them to make it seem that he 
 could
 
 Bob
 Jim has already stated that it was his approach NOT to respond to 
 each point made in my posts. Further Jim's primary complaint has 
 been the length of my posts - not the lack of quoting Jim. 
 
 Jim Rebuttal 03 <>
 Bob
 That approach taken by Jim early in the debate has been a problem 
 as I have noted repeatedly - instead of making headway on his 
 points they are often left were I take them in my responses with 
 points that go unadvised.
 
 My last rebuttal consisted of the summary section (kept as short 
 as possible to accommodate Jim's concern there) - followed by the 
 DETAIL sections where quotes and dialogue was made available for 
 those interested in the quotes behind the summary statements.
 -----------------------------------------------------------------
 
 A. Bob says:
 A. Heb 4 - Jim maintains that the use of "TODAY" in Hebrews 4 
 indicates a new state of things (changes) since the cross - Jim 
 claims Sabbath is merely a metaphor for "heaven".
 
 Jim
 In the first place, I said nothing about "TODAY" with regard to 
 Heb. 4. 
 
 Bob
 I mentioned in my response to your first affirmative that your 
 use of "today" did not match the use we find in Hebrews 4 - as 
 follows
 Partially true - since Heb 4 states that "TODAY" was ALSO a fact 
 in Ps 95:7 - the days of King David and going forward it would 
 ALSO INCLUDE the Christian dispensation as Heb 4 notes.. 
 
 Result: The exclusionary approach in Jim's definition section 
 fails to find support from Psalms 95 quoted in Heb 4.
 
  - and you responded to this challenge from Hebrews 4 as follows
 
 Jim
 Bob is apparently unaware that the definitions here only define 
 the terms as we are using them in this debate. They are not 
 necessarily all-inclusive for all uses of the terms. They are to 
 make sure that both sides understand how they are being used. He 
 says my definitions are exclusionary. Actually, my definition of 
 TODAY is MORE INCLUSIVE than what is needful for this debate.
 
 Bob
 Basically leaving the fact unchallenged - that Hebrews 4 admits 
 the term in Ps 95 and declares that OUR focus on that Ps 95 
 promise regarding "TODAY" is the SAME as we find in King David's 
 day.
 
 Jim
 Neither did I say anything about Sabbath being a metaphor for 
 heaven.
 
 Bob
 And the apparent contradiction of that claim.
 
 Jim
 (rebuttal 02)Yes, Bob, we finally got around to it. There remains 
 a sabbath rest for the people of God, for the church. We call it 
 heaven. That is the Christian's sabbath.
 
 Bob
 My objection stands. The term "TODAY" as used in Hebrews 4 is an 
 application of the SAME Ps 95 promise to saints TODAY - and 
 declares that the same Gen 2 SABBATH applicable in Ps 95 -  
 REMAINS for the people of God. 
 
 Interesting that in your response above - you still do not 
 address that oft repeated points which WAS the point of my 
 reference to Heb 4 from the start.
  -------------------------------------------------
 
 B. Jim claims God's failure to dictate the 10 commandments in the 
 Genesis (origins) account - invalidates them prior to Sinai - 
 especially Christ's Holy Seventh day - which Christ (the Creator) 
 made a Holy Day in Gen 2. He claims it disappeared after Gen 2 
 and does not reappear until after the Exodus.
 
 Jim
 (Affirm 01)
 No day was set up for man to rest until Exodus 12
 
 Interesting that God states He setup the 7th day at creation AS a 
 "holy Day" and you claim that He failed to make it a holy for man 
 until later EVEN though Christ states that it was MADE for man.
 
 As already stated (and still unanswered) - this makes God 
 architect in causing man to fail to distinguish between the holy 
 day of Gen 2 and the common days - Ezek 22:26.
 
 Interesting that we find no record of the Sabbath from Joshua 
 through 1 Kings - are you arguing that this "Evidence" that it 
 disappeared after Deuteronomy as you hope God's Holy Day 
 disappeared after Gen 2?
 
 Jim
 A. in the Bible record God DID NOT relate the seventh day to man
 
 Bob
 Christ "The Sabbath WAS MADE for mankind" Mark 2:27.God "Remember 
 the Sabbath day to keep IT Holy" - Why?? Because of the Gen 2 
 facts ALONE --- "Exodus 20:11"
 
 My objection stands - God's Holy day did NOT vanish after Gen 2 
 only to re-appear in Exodus as you have hoped.
 
  ----------------------------------
 
 C. Jim claims the information provided in Gen 2 is insufficient 
 to establish Christ the Creator's Holy Day as a Holy Day man is 
 to care about. Jim claims that IF God was going to make the 
 commandment valid since Gen 2 He would need the idea that the 
 Holy Day is actually to be KEPT Holy to be "RETROACTIVE" 
 
 Jim
 Again, Bob is misrepresenting what I said. You can see above in 
 item A what I said about the seventh day in Gen 2, where man is 
 not mentioned.
 
 Bob
 Man is mentioned in the Genesis account of the first 7 days on 
 earth - Gen 1 through Gen 2:4 and the Holy Day created by God is 
 given AFTER Man is made but it was MADE FOR MAN - and NOT Man 
 MADE for Sabbath. I believe Christ's report of the matter is 
 accurate.
 
 Jim
 See item C above to see what I said about the sabbath. God never 
 made any "retroactive" laws as Bob says I claimed.
 
 Bob
 As to your 'retroactive statement" 
 
 Jim
 (Affirm 02 Part A)
 Bob thinks that when God gave the sabbath commandment to the 
 children of Israel in Exod. 20:11, it was RETROACTIVE to the 
 creation and included all mankind. 
 -----------------------------------------------
 
 Bob has not furnished any proof that anyone else was ever 
 commanded to keep the sabbath.
 
 Bob
 This is hardly an compelling response to the explicit application 
 of Sabbath to "foreigners" in Is 56 or to "ALL MANKIND" in Isaiah 
 66.
 
 My statements stand - Jim's affirmative failed here.
 ---------------------------------
 
 D. Jim argues that the commandments are negated pre-Sinai IF we 
 discover that the patriarchs were not a NATION before Sinai and 
 did not have the NATIONAL covenant. 
 
 Jim
 This is a ridiculous statement, and it is totally untrue. I said 
 nothing about the patriarchs being or not being a nation. I 
 didn't even use the word "nation."
 
 Bob
 Obfuscating Jim. Here you quote Moses' final address to the 
 NATION of Israel and observe focus on the fact that the NATIONAL 
 covenant MADE with Israel was not made before.
 
 Jim
 (Affirm 02 Part A)This is the first time anyone was commanded to 
 observe the seventh day of the week as "the sabbath," or "a 
 sabbath unto the LORD." This is an important point to remember!" 
 As proof of this, I quoted the following:
 
 (Deu 5:1-3 KJV)  "And Moses called all Israel, and said unto 
 them, Hear, O Israel, the statutes and judgments which I speak in 
 your ears this day, that ye may learn them, and keep, and do 
 them. 
 {2} The LORD our God made a covenant with us in Horeb. 
 {3} The LORD made not this covenant with our fathers, but with 
 us, even us, who are all of us here alive this day."
 
 This scripture proves that God did not make the covenant, of 
 which the law of Moses was part, (The NATIONAL covenant) with 
 their fathers, but only with the children of Israel who were 
 present at that time.
 
 
 Jim
 (Affirm 02) Of course it  (the NATIONAL covenant) wasn't present 
 reality. God was just now preparing to give it to them along with 
 the sabbath commandment. The law of Moses, including the ten 
 commandments, was part of this covenant
 
 Bob
 Clearly the very WORDS of the 4 commandment BASING it on the Gen 
 2 EVENT ALONE - refutes your claim that if the NATIONAL covenant 
 was not made with those in Genesis then there was NO Creation - 
 7th day HOLY Day of Christ the Creator MADE FOR MAN in Gen 2. 
 -----------------------
 
 F. Bob says:
 E. Heb 7 - Jim claims that this chapter addresses the doing away 
 with the 10 commandments (that prohibit the worship of false gods 
 and tell us not to murder, covet AND tell us to honor Christ the 
 Creator's Holy Seventh day).
 
 No such contrast is found in Heb 7 (as the second segment in part 
 II of this response will show in more detail). Rather it is the 
 law of the lineage of the Priesthood regarding HUMAN priests and 
 ANIMAL sacrifices being replaced by Christ our HIGH Priest. NO 
 reference at ALL in Heb 7 to the 10 commandments. (Already 
 pointed out in my previous negative).
 
 Jim
 (Affirm 03 Part A)
 Well, the Hebrew writer did say that the change of the priesthood 
 made a change of the law necessary. He is talking about the law 
 of Moses which contained the ten commandments.
 
 Bob
 The Bible "contains the 10 commandments" - Hebrews is NOT talking 
 about OT scripture as being voided - NOR of the first 5 books of 
 scripture NOR does Hebrews 7 MENTION the 10 commandments  (As 
 much as you would like it to have that focus).
 
 Jim
 (Affirm 01) The book of Hebrews is a contrasting of the law of 
 Moses with the law of Christ
 
 Bob
 No mention of the "law of Christ" in Heb 7 and NO mention of the 
 10 commandments - RATHER - there is ONLY the mention of laws 
 regarding priests and what the selection criteria is. (As already 
 noted and not yet addressed even until the end - here it is 
 again).
 
 Heb 7 dealt explicitly and exclusively with the CHANGE in the Law 
 
 regarding the PRIESTHOOD not regarding our WORSHIP of God (have 
 no other God's before the ONE true God) or our duty to man (No 
 murder, no Coveting). It deals with the law of genealogy of the 
 priest SHOWING that Christ had NO Aaronic Genealogy and was a 
 Priest IN HEAVEN and the LAW regarding ANIMAL sacrifice and HUMAN 
 priests is replaced by the high priestly work of Christ and 
 Christ's blood. NO ref to the 10 commandments.
 
 Heb 7:26 For it was fitting for us to have such a high priest, 
 holy, innocent, undefiled, separated from sinners and exalted 
 above the heavens;
 27 who does not need daily, like those high priests, to offer up 
 sacrifices, first for His own sins and then for the sins of the 
 people, because this He did once for all when He offered up 
 Himself.
 28 For the Law appoints men as high priests who are weak, but the 
 word of the oath, which came after the Law, appoints a Son, made 
 perfect forever. 
 
 NOT ONE sentence in Hebrews can be found contrasting the 10 
 commandments of God with some imaginary DUPLICATE set in the NT 
 short one commandment - that of CHRIST the Creator's Holy Day.
 
 Heb 7:14 For it is evident that our Lord was descended from 
 Judah, a tribe with reference to which Moses spoke nothing 
 concerning priests.
 15 And this is clearer still, if another priest arises according 
 to the likeness of Melchizedek,
 16 who has become such not on the basis of a law of physical 
 requirement, but according to the power of an indestructible 
 life.
 17 For it is attested of Him, "" YOU ARE A PRIEST FOREVER 
 ACCORDING TO THE ORDER OF MELCHIZEDEK.'' 
 18 For, on the one hand, there is a setting aside of a former 
 commandment because of its weakness and uselessness
 
 In true eisegetical style some who have us believe the former 
 commandment regarding the lineage for the HUMAN priesthood should 
 be forgotten here and the 10 commandments should be stuck in here 
 when it suits you.
 
 Not one vs of Hebrews contrasts "the 10 commandments and Jesus 
 Christ".
 
 Jim
 In chapter 7 he starts off talking about Melchisedec, ...and 
 later we see how Christ is a parallel to him and is a priest 
 after the order of Mechisedec. 
 
 Bob
 (Heb 7:11-12 KJV)  "If therefore perfection were by the Levitical 
 priesthood, (for under it the people received the law,) what 
 further need was there that another priest should rise after the 
 order of Melchisedec, and not be called after the order of Aaron? 
 {12} For the priesthood being changed, there is made of necessity 
 a change also of the law."
 
 Here the writer of Hebrews points out that the laws regarding 
 sacrifices - officiated by earthly priests - change as the 
 priesthood changes. NOW the sacrifice is the one in heaven - 
 "Christ's blood" -- and is officiated by our High Priest - 
 Christ. This is NOT a discussion of the 10 commandments and 
 whether we really need to worry about taking God's name in vain. 
 ----------------------------------------------------------------
 
 Jim
 (Affirm 03)Bob refuses to see what is obvious, that is the ten 
 commandments are no longer in force. There are new commandments, 
 a new law that is in effect today.
 
 Bob
 Wrong 
 - it is STILL a sin to worship other Gods
 - it is STILL a sin to curse God, 
 - it is STILL a sin to dishonor parents and that is STILL the 
 FIRST commandment in the LIST of commandments WITH a Promise 
 (Eph 6:1-2)
 
 This is so obvious - that you have been forced to adopt the 
 internally conflicted argument that the law "no longer in force" 
 is 'IN FORCE" in the form of EXACT DUPLICATES - except for Christ 
 the Creator's Holy Day of Gen 2.
 
 The LAW of God ((as we find in Romans 7 ) is STILL in force as it 
 says "though shalt not covet).
 
 James calls it the "LAW of Liberty" and quotes the 10 commandment 
 unit. 
 
 Simply assuming the critical point of your argument rather than 
 proving is not a workable solution for a debate.
 ----------------------------------------
 
 G. Bob says:
 F. Jim claims that (Deu 5:15 KJV) replaces the Exodus 20 REASON 
 (found in Gen 2) with the Exodus "God tells them that the reason 
 He commanded them to keep the sabbath day, was because they were 
 servants in Egypt ..."
 
 Jim
 Here again he distorts what I said. I never said that Deu 5:15 
 "replaces" the reason given in Exod. 20:11.
 
 (Affirm 02 Part A) (Deu 5:15 KJV)  ...Here, God tells them that 
 THE REASON He commanded them to keep the sabbath day, was because 
 they were servants in Egypt and He had brought them out by a 
 mighty hand. So, even God DID NOT always relate the sabbath 
 command to His resting after the creation
 
 Bob
 Read that statement quoted above from your OWN affirm #2 Part A 
 again - you'll see it.
 
 As I stated regarding Deut 5 - (and still you do not respond to 
 it) - God ADDS reasons - but the SAME Gen 2 BASIS remains As God 
 states it in Exod 20:11.
 -----------------------
 
 H. Bob says:
 G. Jim claims that Is 56 shows no Sabbath commandment applicable 
 to foreigners - non Hebrews.
 
 Jim
 That is not what I said.
 
 Bob
 If you are now ACCEPTING that the OT DOES show the Sabbath 
 commandment "APPLICABLE TO FOREIGNERS" then - I will take it, and 
 you can stop claiming that it applied to NO ONE but 
 Jews/Israel/etc.
 
 Jim
 Isa 56:1-8: In the first place, Isaiah here records no command 
 for anyone to keep the sabbath."  I went on to describe the 
 promise God made to the eunuchs and to the sons of strangers that 
 "take hold of my covenant." These are pictured as being brought 
 to God's holy mountain and his house of prayer. This means 
 Jerusalem and the temple, which no longer exists. I repeat that 
 there is no command to anyone here to keep the sabbath.
 
 Bob
 Interesting that your argument is self conflicted again regarding 
 the OT and Sabbath as you state " I repeat that there is no 
 command to anyone here to keep the sabbath." Hard to believe you 
 think no one in this OT text is commanded to keep Sabbath EVEN 
 when the Sabbath COMMAND is mentioned!!
 
 Back to a more well-reasoned approach - Christ argues that 
 Sabbath IS MADE FOR (as a blessing FOR) mankind. Is 56 SHOWS us 
 this BLESSING being APPLIED to NON-Israel - EXPLICITLY for their 
 being obedient to the Sabbath COMMANDMENT. (At some point I would 
 like to know what part of Sabbath COMMANDMENT is not really a 
 COMMAND).
 
 Bob says:
 Jim claims that non-Jews were required to become Jews by God 
 under the OT so any commandment applied to a non-Jew is void as 
 that non-Jew must become a member of the nation of Israel and be 
 circumcised etc.
 
 Again, I never said any such thing. I did say that proselytes to 
 Judaism were obligated to keep the sabbath, as well as the whole 
 law of Moses, but I never said any Gentile was obligated to 
 become a proselyte. Of course a proselyte would be circumcised, 
 also.
 
 I. Bob says:
 H. Jim claims non-Jews must move to Jerusalem to comply with the 
 Isaiah 66 command to simply WORSHIP on Sabbath in Jerusalem 
 (Sabbath from OT to New Earth - valid). 
 
 As we see clearly from Jim's statement
 
 Jim
 Isaiah 56, the setting here is in Jerusalem. Also, there is no 
 command in it for keeping the sabbath. Does Bob really expect all 
 Gentiles to move to Jerusalem? I don't think so. This shows how 
 ridiculous it is to use this passage..
 
 Bob
 Nothing about Is 56 claims that Sabbath keeping can only be done 
 in Jerusalem. Nothing about Is 56 says FOREIGNERS can only KEEP 
 Sabbath in Jerusalem. Nothing in Isaiah 56 says only JEWS could 
 keep Sabbath in Jerusalem.
 
 Jim is simply making this up in an attempt to obfuscate here 
 since he has no defense from the text itself. Understandable but 
 better to simply admit that and move on.
 
 His argument that the "setting is Jerusalem so Isaiah 56 LIMITS 
 Sabbath keeping to Jerusalem for EITHER Proselyte/Foreigner" is 
 bogus by any measure.
 
 Jim
 Besides, this scene (switch to Is 66 here) is of the new heavens 
 and new earth, according to verse 22. So, using the prophecies of 
 Isaiah to try to prove that people besides the Jews were commanded 
 to keep the sabbath is a misuse of the scriptures."
 
 Bob
 Is 66 "ALL MANKIND" coming to worship before God "FROM SABBATH to 
 SABBATH".
 
 Notice they COME to WORSHIP - not necessarily to LIVE in 
 Jerusalem. And Jim so desperately wants to inject some level of 
 "silliness" into the text in an effort to justify excising it 
 from God's word as something APPLICABLE to "ALL MANKIND" (as it 
 explicitly states).
 
 I understand why Jim wants that outcome - but his argument is 
 bogus.
 
 Jim also denies that This Sabbath-to-Sabbath event of ALL MANKIND 
 coming before God for Worship (on the New Earth) DOES NOT Show 
 anything like God telling mankind to do this - Jim's hopes it is 
 just a curious fact about the future apart from any direct 
 SABBATH COMMAND to come before God as the SABBATH COMMAND calls 
 for mankind to do.
 
 Perhaps a DUPLICATE worship on Sabbath for eternity in the New 
 Earth to match Jim's DUPLICATE nine commandments in the NT?
 
 In any case - Isaiah 56 and 66 was quoted and reviewed in detail 
 in my 2nd rebuttal - the detail portion. Jim did not respond to 
 any of it - just the summary section. Consequently I have had to 
 repeat the SAME detail information here in response to Jim's 
 comments here STILL waiting for us to progress PAST the initial 
 post on this at the start of our debate.
 
 By repeatedly avoiding careful response my points raised 
 regarding Isaiah 56 and 66 Jim has arranged to have my SAME 
 initial points posted repeatedly still waiting for Jim's  
 response to the "specifics" here. 
 -----------------------------------------
 
 J. Bob
 Jim claims that Matt 5:17-18 has Christ fulfilling "pleroo" the 
 law (Lev 19:18 love your neighbor and Deut 6:5 Love God) in such 
 as way that it LEAVES Them in place but ENDS the fulfilled 10 
 commandment law "Do not worship false Gods" and "Do not covet" in 
 such a way as to abolish them and replace them with exact 
 duplicates. He claims this happened at the cross. He then claims 
 the duplicate NINE can't be found as a list, and we need Matt-
 Jude to get them collected and YET they were ALREADY clearly 
 stated PRE cross for John 14:15 to AVOID the 10 commandments and 
 speak only of the post-cross Matt-Jude duplicate 9.
 
 Jim
 Bob inserts the references to Lev 19:18 and Deut 6:5 in a place 
 that makes it seem that the law Christ came to fulfil was a 
 different law than the law of Moses. What did Jesus say? 
 
 Bob
 Jim you missed the point. Lev 18 AND Deut 6:5 ARE IN THE LAW OF 
 MOSES. My point was that the LAW OF LOVE "Love for God" and "Love 
 for your Neighbor" WAS PERFECTLY FULFILLED by Christ as well as 
 other laws in "the law of  Moses". AND SINSE we KNOW that the LAW 
 OF LOVE (recorded IN the Law of Moses) remains EVEN THOUGH it was 
 FULFILLED PERFECTLY - we have NO ARGUMENT that "PLEROO"ing that 
 LAW of LOVE recorded IN THE LAW OF MOSES - in any way ENDS it.
 
 (Mat 5:17-18 KJV)  "Think not that I am come to destroy the law, 
 or the prophets: I am not come to destroy, but to fulfil. 
 {18} For verily I say unto you, Till heaven and earth pass, one 
 jot or one tittle shall in no wise pass from the law, till all be 
 fulfilled."
 
 He was talking about the Law of God -  as recorded in Scripture. 
 LAW that INCLUDED the LAW of LOVE (Lev 19:18, Deut 6:5) as well 
 as the 10 commandments (ALL 10 of which -- yes EVEN the NINE that 
 Jim want's DUPLICATED - are included) -- PRESCRIPTIVE laws 
 regarding MORAL behavior. That REMAIN EVEN TODAY.
 
 As stated repeatedly, exhaustively and without response so far.
 
 (Neh 8:8 KJV)  "So they read in the book in the LAW OF GOD 
 distinctly, and gave the sense, and caused them to understand the 
 reading."
 
 Jim
 (affirm 3)This book of the law contained the whole law of God 
 that was given to Moses on Sinai. It contained the ten 
 commandments, the laws regarding sacrifices, feast days, and all 
 other aspects of the law of Moses.
 
 Bob wants us to believe that Jesus came not to destroy the law 
 but to obey it. It would be ridiculous for him to have said that, 
 since every Jew was required to obey the law. 
 
 Bob
 Jim EVEN Agrees (IN THIS Sabbath debate)
 
 Jim
 (affirm 01) During His ministry, Jesus KEPT  the Law of Moses 
 PERFECTLY. Although the Jews accused him of violating the law, HE 
 DID NOT.    He may have violated their traditions, but NOT the 
 law.
 
 when Jesus said he came to fulfil the law, he meant more than 
 merely obeying the law. He came to fill the law full, as we have 
 shown already. He came to complete it so that it could pass out 
 of the way
 
 Bob
 Jim refutes his OWN argument here so often it takes too much 
 space to keep repeating - but here it is again!!
 
 Jim
 (AFFIRM 2 Part A) Remember the two greatest commandments? Those 
 are the only commands that ARE THE SAME UNDER THE GOSPEL as THEY 
 WERE under the LAW of MOSES having completed the job for which it 
 was given. As we have shown, the law was intended to last only 
 until the seed (Christ) should come.
 
 Bob
 Jim is conflicted - using arguments to ABOLISH the law of love 
 then trying to KEEP IT since he knows that in fact all this 
 fabrication about PLEROO causing these MORAL imperatives 
 (PRESCRIPTIVE LAW) to "pass out of the way" is totally bogus. THE 
 ONLY thing that could pass out of the way were the PREDICTIVE 
 LAWS that PREDICTED the sacrifice of the Messiah for mankind's 
 sin (not just the sin of Jews).
 (Gal 3:23-25 KJV)  "But before faith came, we were kept under the 
 law, shut up unto the faith which should afterwards be revealed. 
 {24} Wherefore the law was our schoolmaster to bring us unto 
 Christ, that we might be justified by faith. 
 {25} But after that faith is come, we are no longer under a 
 schoolmaster."
 
 Jim
 Notice that Paul says that we were kept under the law before 
 faith came, but after faith is come, we are no longer under a 
 schoolmaster. That means that since faith has come, as it did 
 with Christ, the seed, we are no longer under the law. Bob just 
 cannot get around that.
 
 Gal 3 has been repeatedly reworked in your own responses where 
 YOU INSERT "faith comes when Christ came to earth" BUT THE TEXT 
 speaks INSTEAD about FAITH coming to the INDIVIDUAL when we 
 BELIEVE. 
 
 Gal 3 {22} But the scripture hath concluded ALL under SIN, that 
 the promise by faith of Jesus Christ might be given to THEM THAT 
 BELIEVE.
 
 Gal 3:{26} For ye are all the CHILDREN OF GOD BY FAITH in Christ 
 Jesus. 
 {27} For AS MANY OF YOU AS HAVE BEEN BAPTIZED into Christ have 
 put on Christ."
 
 Gal 3 solution is individual BELIEF, and INDIVIDUAL acceptance - 
 THAT is when we are RELEASED from the sentence of death set on 
 EACH of us by the STILL IN FORCE penalties for breaking God's 
 STILL IN FORCE law.
 
 Your devotion to ignoring that response posted IN detail with the 
 Gal 3 text already - is most impressive.
 
 Jim
 We are no longer under the law of Moses, the ten commandments, or 
 the sabbath law. This shows conclusively that when Christ came , 
 the law had completed its purpose. Jesus fulfilled the law. He 
 filled it full.
 
 Bob
 NO moral commandment - NOT EVEN ONE - CAN "COMPLETE IT's 
 PURPOSE" by EVER having ONE person actually BE moral. THERE IS NO 
 principle in ALL of scripture where MORAL PRESCRIPTIVE LAWS are 
 anticipating ONE act of obedience so they may NO LONGER bind 
 mankind to BE MORAL. Your entire premise is bogus here.
 
 ONLY PREDICTIVE laws - regarding the SACRIFICE of Christ 
 "COMPLETED their PURPOSE" when the EVENT THEY PREDICTED - TAKES 
 PLACE.
 
 It's so obvious - yet you not only ignore it - you refuse to 
 reply as scripture so directly refutes your position. FAITH COMES 
 BY HEARING. When FAITH COMES - is a reference to THE INDIVIDUAL 
 accepting Christ.
 
 It is unfortunate that this debate could not be conducted in a 
 way to directly respond to basic salient points made for Sabbath 
 keeping. You have spent most of your time claiming not to have 
 said - what can be shown as direct quotes from you so far, 
 instead of responding directly to the Biblical arguments 
 highlighted as refuting your position.  This results in 
 repetition of the points made against your POV until you address 
 it - or the debate ends. 
 
 -----------------------------------------------------------------
 K.  Jim wants to use Gal 3 for support again (ignoring the 
 content of my detailed response in my 3rd affirmative AND 
 ignoring the repeat in my first negative).
 
 Gal 3 clearly shows all men STILL condemned under sin by the 
 INTACT LAW - and shows that it is when FAITH COMES that man is 
 free from the DEBT - see the post in my 3rd affirmative and first 
 negative and respond to the points currently negating your 
 supposition here.
 
 Gal 3 {22} But the scripture hath concluded ALL under SIN, that 
 the promise by faith of Jesus Christ might be given to THEM THAT 
 BELIEVE.
 
 Jim
 (simply ignoring the point)Bob is twisting Gal 3 to come up with 
 what he says above. Gal 3:23 says that we were kept under the law 
 until faith came. Verse 25 repeats that after faith has come we 
 are no longer under a schoolmaster, as I showed above. Faith came 
 with Christ, as Paul shows in verse 26:
 
 (Gal 3:26 KJV)  "For ye are all the children of God by faith in 
 Christ Jesus."
 
 Bob
 Actually - you have yet to show that the COMING of Christ is WHEN 
 ANYONE became/becomes a believer. RATHER the AUDIENCE (Galatians)  
 BECAME Children of God WHEN they believed - and not a second 
 BEFORE. Obviously. The EVENT, the TIME WHEN they became "children 
 of God" is WHEN they ACCEPTED Christ - Faith does not spring up 
 retroactively to the TIME when Christ was born NOR even to His 
 death. It is IN YOU when you BELIEVE for "FAITH COMES BY HEARING".
 
 When FAITH CAME - we believed and were set free. No re-
 incarnation there.
 
 Jim
 Bob does not want to admit that faith came with Christ, as is 
 revealed by his statement in his first negative:
 
 Bob
 Indeed - none of US were even alive 2000 years ago - NONE of us 
 expressed faith our even encountered it 2000 years ago. You are 
 simply twisting the text to avoid the point it clearly makes. 
 FAITH COMES to EACH when EACH "HEARS" the gospel "FAITH comes by 
 HEARING". You have turned the text on it's head to MAKE it say 
 that our FAITH CAME when Christ came to earth. No such text exists in all of scripture.
 
 The text did not say "but when Jesus came to earth we were no 
 longer bound by God's Law". It says "but after FAITH is come we 
 are no longer under a schoolmaster"
 
 Jim
 You see that he says the text does not say "when Jesus came" but 
 "after faith is come."
 
 Bob
 yes - that would be THE TEXT - instead of simply taking the words 
 you have inserted IN PLACE of the text.
 
 Gal 3 {22} But the scripture hath concluded ALL under SIN, that 
 the promise by faith of Jesus Christ might be given to THEM THAT 
 BELIEVE.
 
 God's law - STILL in force, STILL holding ALL under SIN and STILL 
 we are released ONLY when we BELIEVE - not 2000 years BEFORE we 
 BELIEVE.
 
 Gal 3:{23} But before FAITH CAME, we were kept under the law, 
 shut up unto the FAITH which should afterwards be revealed. 
 {24} Wherefore the law was our schoolmaster to bring us unto 
 Christ, that we might be JUSTIFIED BY FAITH. 
 {25} But after that FAITH IS come, we are no longer under a 
 schoolmaster. 
 {26} For ye are all the CHILDREN OF GOD BY FAITH in Christ Jesus.
 {27} For AS MANY OF YOU AS HAVE BEEN BAPTIZED into Christ have 
 put on Christ."
 
 The text did not say "but when Jesus came to earth we were no 
 longer bound by God's Law". It says "but after FAITH is come we 
 are no longer under a schoolmaster"
 
 "You are all children OF GOD by FAITH". 
 
 Heb 11 points out that faith was in full bloom in the OT.
 
 Instead of being a point in time 2000 years ago when the Law of 
 God died and we are free to ignore it as we wish - it is FAITH in 
 Christ and His DEATH paying the REAL debt that the STILL 
 authoritative law requires for sin. The penalty is inverse 
 because the LAW of God is still authoritative. Men are still 
 lost, still guilty of sin, still condemned to death - UNTIL they 
 express faith in Christ - the ONE solution for ALL time.
 -----------------------------------------------------------------
 
 L. Jim proposes that John 14:15 "Keep my COMMANDMENTS" is 
 about the Matt-Jude Duplicate nine (which he claims are not 
 listed but seen if we read all of Matt - Jude).
 
 Jim
 Bob has in his head that if the ten commandments are not binding 
 as such, then nine of them, assuming the fourth is not binding, 
 must be duplicated in the New Testament.
 
 Bob
 Hmm I wonder where I got that idea in THIS debate?
 
 Jim
 (rebuttal 3) "The doctrine of Christ DOES INCLUDE injunctions 
 against ALL of the evils the TEN commandments prohibited, EXCEPT 
 for the sabbath commandment."
 
 Bob
 This is key to YOUR own point - and now you want to make it out 
 as some made-up accusation I have against your POV???
 
 Which proves your OWN argument to be conflicted as it TRIES to 
 find them ALL complete by John 14:15 so it can conjecture that 
 the "commandments" mentioned here in this PRE-cross statement of 
 Christ - WERE some NEW set mythically created but NOT documented 
 anywhere in scripture.
 
 Jim
 I referred him to Matt 15, where Jesus names a number of sins, as 
 an example. Jesus also gave some of his commandments in the 
 sermon on the mount, where he contrasted what the law of Moses 
 said, with what he says. He mentions specifically the prohibition 
 to murder and to commit adultery and gives his commands that 
 place the sin in the heart even before action takes place.
 
 Bob
 As already stated - those PRE-Cross statements EXPAND the meaning 
 of the 10 - they do not ABOLISH them - NOR do they stated that 
 this PRE-Cross FACT of HATE being SIN - is NOT true in the OT. It 
 was ALWAYS true and is FULLY consistent with the 10 commandments.
 
 Another point you have refused to address.
 ---------------------------------------------------
 
 J. Jim abandons his John 14:15 position that Christ's 
 commandments were in listed, known and place PRE-cross, and 
 switches to the MORE defendable position that AFTER the Cross - at PENTECOST.
 
 Jim
 Here, Bob attributes to me, his use of John 14:15. I did not 
 quote or use John 14:15 in either my first or second affirmative 
 speeches. So, to save space for more important ideas, I'm going 
 to ignore this statement.
 
 Bob
 Jim, I really appreciate you're being upfront and saying that you 
 do not want to discuss the commandments of Christ as He mentions 
 the subject in the NT. This is so much better to get your desire 
 to insert the "law of Christ" where the text contains no such 
 verbiage and then to IGNORE the text that ACTUALLY says "IF you 
 love ME keep MY COMMANDMENTS" to discover just what of that PRE-
 CROSS context IDENTIFIES those commandments OF CHRIST.
 
 I agree that for your position to stand at all - this is one text 
 you need to avoid.
 
 Jim
 (Rebuttal 03)You can see here that Bob is assuming that the 
 commandments (in John 14:15 PRE Cross), to which Jesus is 
 referring, are the ten commandments. That means he assumes we are 
 still bound to keep the ten commandments... We all know the law of 
 Moses was nailed to the cross (Col. 2:14) and we are not amenable 
 to it.
 
 Bob
 Clearly Jim's conflicted logic wants to destroy God's 
 commandments at the cross and get Christ in John 14 (PRE CROSS) 
 to claim as "HIS COMMANDMENTS" something NOT YET DUPLICATED (as 
 he claims nine of the 10 commandments are duplicated after being 
 nailed to the cross and ended).There seems to be no end to the 
 internally conflicted argument on Jim's part here.
 
 He keeps charging that Christ did not call for obedience to the 10 
 commandments and desperately wants to avoid the CLEAR text - PRE-
 Cross "IF you love Me KEEP MY (PRE Cross) COMMANDMENTS" John 
 14:15. That is probably a wise thing to do to avoid it's 
 devastating impact on Jim's argument - but is not an accepted way 
 to discover truth on any Bible subject. And I think Jim knows it.
 -----------------------------------------------------------------
 
 Bob further states:
 Paul states that the NT Commandments were codified and in a 
 list - (the Exodus 20 list) such that the 5th commandment was the 
 "FIRST in the list WITH a promise" - Eph 6:1-2. As already noted 
 in my previous posts. 
 
 Jim
 Here Bob misrepresents Paul
 
 Bob
 Here I QUOTE Paul and SHOW that Paul RELIED on the ORDER of the 
 commandments as well documented TO THE POINT of identifying the 
 commandment about honoring Parents as the FIRST in the list with a 
 promise.
 
 (Eph 6:1-2 NASB)  "Children, obey your parents in the Lord: for 
 this is right. {2} Honour thy father and mother; which IS THE 
 FIRST commandment WITH a promise;"
 
 Jim
 You can see that is not what Paul was saying.
 
 Bob
 Obviously he has said it and you object - but on what basis?
 
 Jim
 He tells children to obey their parents, for this is right. He 
 emphasizes the command by quoting . the command from the ten 
 commandments and notes it is the first command, of the ten 
 commandments, that has a promise attached to its keeping.
 
 Bob
 Bravo! Paul RELIES on the FACT that IN the LIST it is the FIRST 
 with a PROMSE - and Paul does not state ANY confusion about 
 DUPLICATE lists of commandments as you propose for the DUPLICATE 
 nine that would INCLUDE this commandment about parents.
 
 Jim
 (rebuttal 3) "The doctrine of Christ DOES INCLUDE injunctions 
 against ALL of the evils the TEN commandments prohibited, EXCEPT 
 for the sabbath commandment." 
 
 Bob
 And STILL you have provided NO evidence that this Eph 6 reference 
 to the ORDER and LIST and AUTHORITY of the 10 commandment UNIT is 
 NOT the obvious positive ENDORSEMENT of that list that it appears 
 - as Paul uses it to SUPPORT his emphasis on the command.
 
 Jim
 Bob wants us to believe that whenever commandments are mentioned 
 they must be the ten commandments, which is simply not true.
 
 Bob
 Jim has said it himself HERE that in fact it IS the 10 
 commandments - then follows with his conflicted statement that we 
 should NOT consider the commandments of the NT as a reference to 
 the 10 commandments.
 ----------------------------------------------------------
 
 M. Acts 15 - Jim claims that the when the Jewish Christian 
 leaders made their decision regarding Gentiles their decision can 
 be construed to mean that anything they omitted is to be ignored 
 by Gentile Christians. And of course we see in Acts 15, they 
 omitted Sabbath, the Original NINE, the Duplicate NINE the Law of 
 Love for God AND the Law of Love for our neighbor. 
 
 Jim
 No, Bob, I don't claims that this can be construed that way, and 
 you know it. I claim that it MUST be construed that way, because 
 that is what the apostles said. Just read Acts 15:28,29
 
 Bob
 - your conflicted statement that you did NOT say it CAN be 
 construed that way - followed by you insistence that it MUST be 
 construed that way is instructive.
 
 Jim
 The whole point of this conference in Jerusalem was to determine 
 if the Gentiles must keep the law of Moses and be circumcised, or 
 not. The apostles were defining exactly which part of the law of 
 Moses the Gentiles should keep.
 
 Bob
 hmmm - Lev 19:18 "Love your Neighbor" IN THE LAW OF MOSES.
 hmmm - Deut 6:5 "Love God with ALL your heart" IN THE LAW OF MOSES
 hmmm- Exodus 20:1-4 "HAVE NO other God's before Me" IN THE LAW OF 
 MOSES.
 
 Now you are trying to say that they wanted to show the Gentiles 
 that THE LAW OF MOSES was abolished and Gentiles did not need to 
 worry about it since it was nailed to the cross.
 
 Jim
 There were only four things that they bound on the Gentiles from 
 the law of Moses. They were not to eat meats offered to idols, 
 not to eat blood, not to eat things strangled, and they were to 
 not commit fornication. These were the only parts of the law of 
 Moses that Gentiles were commanded to keep. 
 
 Bob
 
 Interesting that they would include ONE of the DUPLICATE NINE - 
 but not ALL of them. You argue here that there was NO need to 
 worry about Lev 19:18 or Deut 6:5 or Exodus 20:1-4 since THESE 
 portions of the LAW OF MOSES were LEFT out of the list.
 
 Your conflicted argument on this point has yet to address this 
 objection already stated in past exchanges. Your claim is that by 
 NOT repeating some section of scripture in Acts 15 - they VOID it.
 
 Jim
 They did not command the Gentiles to keep the sabbath. This 
 itself proves my case conclusively.
 
 Bob continues:
 They could do this BECAUSE the decision RELIED on the fact that 
 Gentile Christians in EVERY CITY would have access to scripture 
 each Sabbath for "in EVERY CITY Moses has those who preach him, 
 SINCE he is read EVERY Sabbath"  - so through the study of God's 
 word WEEKLY - they would LEARN about love for God (Deut 6:5) love 
 for their Neighbor (Lev 19:18), in EVERY CITY.
 
 Jim
 He says "they could do this because" He can only offer a 
 hypothesis. He has no facts to support his case on this.
 
 Bob
 I have the FACT that you ignore in the debate found in Acts 15. 
 The FACT that "SINCE Moses is READ EVERY SABBATH" the CONCLUSION 
 that DOES NOT include things like the LAW OF LOVE Lev 19:18, Deut 
 6:5 IS reasonable. WITHOUT that vital BASIS for their conclusion 
 - we have your fallacy that would VOID the law of love SIMPLY by 
 the fact that it was not MENTIONED - with your emphasis on "NO 
 GREATER BURDEN".
 
 It is such an obvious point, devastating to your entire case here 
 - and you have refused to address it. I think I know why.
 ---------------------------
 
 Jim
 He wants us to believe that they didn't mention
 
 
 I. EPISTLE OF CLEMENT TO THE CORINTHIANS. 
 1. Authorship and Date: 
 Only the larger part had previously been extant, when the 
 complete epistle was recovered in 1875 by Bryennios, bishop of 
 Nicomedia. The high honor in which it was held by early 
 Christendom is attested (1) by its position in Codex 
 Alexandrinus, at the end of the New Testament, and in an ancient 
 Syriac MS, between the Catholic and Pauline Epistles; (2) by its 
 being publicly read in many churches down to the 4th century. 
 (Historia Ecclesiastica, III, 16). The work is ANONYMOUS, but 
 sent in the name of the Roman church. 
 
 Jim
 Here, again, Bob misrepresents what I have presented. I gave 
 three quotations from the 1st century Christians showing that 
 they did assemble on the first day of the week, not on the 
 sabbath. I have no idea where Bob got his date of 1875. That is 
 totally ridiculous. I quoted Clement
 
 Bob
 See the note above - for perspective.
 
 Jim
 The Roman senate, to which the third quotation was addressed, is 
 not the Italian government that existed in 1875 as Bob would like 
 you to think. 
 
 Bob
 huh?? Where did that come from? Are we talking about the same 
 thing - you know, the Epistle of Clement to the Corinthians??
 
 Jim
 That testimony is devastating to Bob's case, because it proves 
 the early church did not keep the sabbath.
 
 Bob
 In fact, there is no credible first century document showing that 
 the first century Christians did not keep Sabbath. INSTEAD there 
 are 2nd and 3rd century documents showing that they CONTINUED to 
 keep Sabbath long after the first century even though by the end 
 of the 3rd century some of the "replacement" theology of Sunday 
 for Sabbath had grown beyond isolated regions.
 
 Something Jim rejects (Replacing the day of the 4th commandment 
 with Sunday instead of Sabbath). Jim elects to abolish all of 
 God's laws instead.
 ------------------------------------------------------------
 
 Q. Bob says:
 K. Jim points out that the first of day of the week tradition 
 has it's origin in the traditions of man - not a commandment from 
 God and should not REPLACE Christ the Creator's Holy Seventh day - 
 or God's 4 commandment. We need to regard the commandments of God 
 as extinct-abolished and cling to the tradition of man instead - 
 according to Jim.
 
 Jim
 Once again, Bob makes an accusation against me out of whole 
 cloth. I said nothing of the sort that Bob accuses me. I said 
 nothing about the church's assembling on the first day of the 
 week being a tradition of man. In the first place, it isn't true. 
 In the second place, I never said it.
 
 Bob
 Jim Affirm 2 Part B<>
 
 Jim gives NO command of God ENDORSING ANY honor for the First day 
 of the week. RATHER Jim simply admits that the first day is to be 
 honored NOT as the NEW Sabbath but as following the tradition of 
 the church WITH NOTHING by way of command from God endorsing it. 
 Jim agrees it is NOT obedience to God's commandments.
 
 Jim's entire support for exalting weekday ONE above Christ the 
 Creator's Holy Day MADE Holy By Him EXPLICITLY - is in trying to 
 find PRACTICES (tradition) in the NT church that might help him 
 establish his belief in weekday ONE.
 
 Jim
 Notice how Bob tries to make these scriptures seem unimportant. 
 In Acts 20:7 we find the disciples, the church, meeting together 
 to break bread, to partake of the Lord's Supper. Paul had been 
 waiting for seven days for the first day of the week.  This shows 
 the church met regularly on the first day of the week, not the 
 sabbath.
 
 Bob
 1. You are trying to establish doctrine based on practices you 
 HOPE to find in the church (traditions).
 2. WE DO NOT find ANY weekday ONE after weekday ONE PRACTICE for 
 Sunday keeping in ALL of scripture.
 3. YOU have NO "regularly meeting" or "regularly assemble" text 
 for WEEKDAY ONE.
 
 Mark 7
 6 And He said to them, ""Rightly did Isaiah prophesy of you 
 hypocrites, as it is written: " THIS PEOPLE HONORS ME WITH THEIR 
 LIPS, BUT THEIR HEART IS FAR AWAY FROM ME.
 7 " BUT IN VAIN DO THEY WORSHIP ME, TEACHING AS DOCTRINES THE 
 PRECEPTS OF MEN.' 
 8 ""Neglecting the COMMANDMENTS of God, you hold to the tradition 
 of men.''
 9 He was also saying to them, ""You are experts at SETTING ASIDE 
 THE COMMANDMENT OF GOD in order to keep your tradition.
 10 "For Moses said, " HONOR YOUR FATHER AND YOUR MOTHER'; and, " 
 HE WHO SPEAKS EVIL OF FATHER OR MOTHER, IS TO BE PUT TO DEATH';
 11 but you say, "If a man says to his father or his mother, 
 whatever I have that would help you is Corban (that is to say, 
 given to God),'
 12 you no longer permit him to do anything for his father or his 
 mother;
 13 thus invalidating the word of God by your tradition which you 
 have handed down; and you do many things such as that.''
 
 Notice the "COMMANDMENT OF GOD" is one of the dreaded 10 that you 
 are trying to abolish. Christ said they were voiding that 
 commandment by teaching people to ignore it. Hmmmm.
 
 Jim
 I would never put the traditions of men above the commandments of 
 God. I did say that the first day of the week is not observed as 
 a sabbath, but I'm not sure if that is what Bob is referring to 
 here or not.
 
 Bob
 Sure - you do not value your current tradition of keeping day one 
 INSTEAD of what you claim is the abolished LAW of God regarding 
 Christ's Holy Day. In fact you have stated that not ONLY is your 
 tradition superior BUT IF we even ATTEMPT to Keep the commandments 
 of God - we will go to hell.
 
 Jim
 (Rebuttal 03)Additionally, as Paul told the Galatians, if we 
 ATTEMPT to KEEP it, we are "fallen from grace." Gal. 5:4.
 -----------------------------------------------------------
 
 Bob
 Jim has recommended that this very thing be done because 
 keeping the commandments of God - will send you to hell.
 
 Jim
 Now this is really crass of Bob, to accuse me of saying that 
 keeping God's commandments will send you to hell. 
 
 You must have forgotten your own posts.
 
 Jim
 Additionally, as Paul told the Galatians, if we 
 ATTEMPT to KEEP it, we are "fallen from grace." Gal. 5:4.
 
 Bob
 Your misuse of Gal 5 puts you comfortably condemning people to 
 hell for "KEEPING" the commandments of God.
 -----------------------------------------------------------
 
 .L. Finally Jim appeals to Heb 4 again and argues that the OT 
 Jews of King David's day (Ps 95) failed to go to heaven and that 
 is what is meant in Heb 4 by saying they did not enter into the 
 Sabbath rest.
 
 Jim
 In my second Negative, I said: "There was no forgiveness of sins 
 under the Law of Moses. 
 (Affirm 1)The old law could not promise the forgiveness of sins, 
 but the new LAW COULD and did.
 
 Bob
 Gal 3 says NO LAW could do it - but that's the part you keep 
 avoiding.
 
 In any case, it is well established that you don't think there 
 was any forgiveness of sin in the OT.
 
 Jim
 (rebuttal 02)Yes, Bob, we finally got around to it. There remains 
 a sabbath rest for the people of God, for the church. We call it 
 heaven. ... You'll learn why we do not keep the seventh day 
 sabbath. You'll see that the seventh day sabbath was only a 
 shadow of good things to come. ...
 
 (Affirm 2 part B)Notice in Heb 4 verse 9 that there is a rest 
 remaining for the people of God. But it is NOT the weekly sabbath 
 as some would have us believe. The weekly sabbath was kept all 
 during the life of the Hebrew people. ...
 
 Bob
 Your internally conflicted positions here seem to be exhaustless.
 
 My statement above stands.
 ---------------------------------------------------------------
 
 Bob <>
 
 Jim
 Actually, those listed in Heb. 11 are not involved in what David 
 wrote, unless Moses is. David was talking about the Israelites 
 who left Egypt and did not get to enter the promised land.
 
 Bob
 Psalm 95
 1 O come, let us sing for joy to the LORD, Let us shout joyfully 
 to the rock of our salvation.
 2 Let us come before His presence with thanksgiving, Let us shout 
 joyfully to Him with psalms.
 3 For the LORD is a great God And a great King above all gods,
 4 In whose hand are the depths of the earth, The peaks of the 
 mountains are His also.
 
 Clearly NOT limited to the Hebrews at the time of the Exodus.
 
 Ps 95
 5 The sea is His, for it was He who made it, And His hands formed the dry land. 
 6 Come, let us worship and bow down, Let us kneel before the LORD 
 our Maker.
 7 For He is our God, And we are the people of His pasture and the 
 sheep of His hand. Today, if you would hear His voice,
 
 Clearly NOT limited to the Hebrews at the Exodus - and the CALL 
 to REMAIN faithful to God "TODAY" is NOT limited to the Hebrews 
 at the exodus.
 
 Ps 95
 8 Do not harden your hearts, as at Meribah, As in the day of 
 Massah in the wilderness,
 9 ""When your fathers tested Me, They tried Me, though they had 
 seen My work.
 10 ""For forty years I loathed that generation, And said they are 
 a people who err in their heart, And they do not know My ways.
 11 ""Therefore I swore in My anger, Truly they shall not enter 
 into My rest.'' 
 
 The call to REMAIN faithful "TODAY" is NOT limited to the Hebrews 
 in the desert - but the EXAMPLE of those who WERE NOT faithful IS 
 limited JUST to those living during that 40 years. God 
 ILLUSTRATES the FAILING case of people living during that time in 
 the desert (but of course excluding the faithful like Joshua, 
 Moses, Caleb etc etc).
 
 King David was IN the land of Canaan when he wrote the call in 
 Ps 95 for God's people NOT to harden their hearts.
 
 Although this was dealt with in my 3rd affirm I repeat much of 
 the same material here hoping it will finally get answered. Heb 4 
 shows that the issues for David and for us are the SAME, the God 
 is the SAME and the Sabbath is the SAME - it REMAINS for the 
 people of God. Heb 4 contrasts rebellion vs obedience and 
 declares that the issues are TODAY the SAME as in the TODAY of 
 King David.
 
 Jim
 You can see the similarity of the two verses. Bob has 
 misunderstood what David was talking about and thus has made the 
 false accusations against what I said.
 
 Bob
 To the contrary - and here I have provided THE ENTIRE chapter of 
 Ps 95 PROVING that the SAME call to REMAIN FAITHFUL (as stated to 
 David's CONTEMPORARIES) is AFFIRMED in HEB 4 AS STILL APPLICABLE 
 TODAY JUST as it was in King David's Day. My comment REMAINS and 
 is SUSTAINED by careful exegesis of the chapter - rather than 
 avoiding the point.
 
 Jim
 The rest that remains to the people of God is not the weekly 
 sabbath as Bob wants it to be. Look at what is said
 
 Bob
 Yes - let's LOOK at the text for it tells us that the SAME Sabbath 
 - ESTABLISHED in Gen 2 (much to the opposition of Jim) is STILL 
 REMAINING as it was in King David's day. Let's look VERY closely 
 this time instead of simply ignoring the details and not 
 responding to them.
 
 1. (Vs 2) - WE have had the same "good news" (gospel) preached to 
 US "JUST as they also" as did the OT people of God at Sinai.
 2. (Vs 7)  We also have the same salvation promises given to 
 God's Sabbath-keeping people in the days of King David
 3. There "REMAINS" a Sabbath rest (as in the Creation week 
 Sabbath --- God Rested on the Seventh-day) for today's Saints 
 just as in the case of the OT saints.
 
 Hebrews 4
 1 Therefore, let us fear if, while a promise remains of entering 
 His rest, any one of you may seem to have come short of it.
 2 For indeed we have had good news preached to us, just as they 
 also; but the word they heard did not profit them, because it was 
 not united by faith in those who heard.
 
 We observe here that we have the SAME "good news" preached to us 
 JUST AS they (OT Hebrews at Sinai) ALSO. The ONE Gospel (Gal 1:6) 
 which was even "preached to Abraham" (Gal 3:7-8) - showing ONE 
 solution (salvation through Christ) for the ONE problem (fallen 
 humanity lost in sin), 
 
 1Cor 10:2-4 "ALL were Baptized into Moses in the cloud and in the 
 sea and all drank from the same SPIRITUAL ROCK which followed 
 them and that was CHRIST"
 
 Heb 4
 3 For we who have believed enter that rest, just as He has said, 
 "AS I SWORE IN MY WRATH, THEY SHALL NOT ENTER MY REST,'' although 
 His works were finished from the foundation of the world.
 
 In vs 4 we HAVE ENTERED his rest - because when we BELIEVE (Rom 
 10:9) we are born again - transformed, accepted into fellowship 
 with God (1John 1:1-5). Having been returned to that fellowship 
 which Adam had before the fall - RESTORED fellowship with God - 
 worshipping in love and submitting to God's Word.
 
 So also did the giants of faith in (Heb 11) - saints of the OT 
 who "believe and it was accounted unto them for righteousness". 
 By faith - by "belief" these saints ENTERED just as we HAVE 
 ENTERED His rest.
 
 But of course Hebrews is addressing the many who failed - due to 
 their stubborn "unbelief" in chapter 3
 
 Heb 3:19 So we see that they were not able to enter because of 
 unbelief. .
 
 Rom 11:19You will say then, Branches were broken off so that I 
 might be grafted in.
 20 Quite right, they were broken off for their unbelief, but you 
 stand by your faith. Do not be conceited, but fear; 
 21 for if God did not spare the natural branches, He will not 
 spare you, either. 
 22 Behold then the kindness and severity of God; to those who 
 fell, severity, but to you, God's kindness, if you continue in 
 His kindness; otherwise you also will be cut off. 
 23 And they also, if they do not continue in their unbelief, will 
 be grafted in, for God is able to graft them in again.
 
 But aside from these examples of failure - we do have the great 
 examples of success of those that were "pleasing to God" and who 
 found "Acceptance with God" mentioned in Heb 11.
 
 Heb 4:
 4 For He has said somewhere concerning the seventh day: "" AND 
 GOD RESTED ON THE SEVENTH DAY FROM ALL HIS WORKS'';
 
 Here we see it is EXPLICITLY the SAME Seventh-day Sabbath that is 
 referenced - the CREATOR's work in RESTING on the 7th day JUST as 
 God Himself insists in the Sabbath commandments.
 
 5 and again in this passage, "" THEY SHALL NOT ENTER MY REST.''
 6 Therefore, since it remains for some to enter it, and those who 
 formerly had good news preached to them failed to enter because of disobedience,
 
 Failure to enter to the TRUE rest of God's Holy Sabbath is due to 
 "disobedience" 
 - FAILURE to OBEY the Word of God (in this case it is a reference 
 to OT people who FAIL to OBEY the commandments of God). This is 
 not Elijah, Enoch, Moses, nor any others mentioned in the "hall 
 of faith" Heb 11. But it is those who fell away and who God longs 
 to restore back to the place from which they fell. (Rom 11:19-23) 
 - the SAME place into which WE ALSO are grafted in.
 
 7 He again fixes a certain day, ""Today,'' saying through David 
 after so long a time just as has been said before, "" TODAY IF 
 YOU HEAR HIS VOICE, DO NOT HARDEN YOUR HEARTS.'' 8 For if Joshua 
 had given them rest, He would not have spoken of another day 
 after that.
 
 Indeed the OFFER of true rest - being in perfect harmony and 
 communion with God as was Adam on HIS first Sabbath - REMAINED 
 even in the time of David - WHEN it was called "TODAY" Ps 97:5. 
 We are simply offered this SAME promise given to God's Sabbath-
 keeping saints - in Ps 97 as it was called then - "TODAY".
 
 The SAME offer of spiritual REST ACTIVE in Ps 95
 - IS STILL the message of Today. The SAME rest as the Sabbath - 
 keeping - OT saint (David) spoke of as being VALID in His day - 
 is offered today.
 
 Heb 4:
 9 So there remains a Sabbath rest for the people of God.
 10 For the one who has entered His rest has himself also rested 
 from his works, as God did from His.
 
 Again - the appeal to the EXPLICIT wording of the 4th commandment 
 AND the SAME appeal to the REASON for rest - following God's 
 example at Creation- STILL valid. The context, the appeal the 
 language REMAINS the same. JUST as God rested In my 2nd negative 
 I sent out a summary post - no details just the points of the 
 response, followed by a much more detailed response for those who 
 wanted to see the evidence/proof behind the summary arguments.
 
 Jim responded to the Summary post - complaining that there was no 
 detail to it.
 
 He did not respond at all to the detail post - complaining that 
 the details were too long.
 
 In this response I have gone the extra-mile in responding in 
 detail to EACH point Jim addressed as I have tried to do IN EVERY 
 post. My belief is that the SUBJECTS Jim references are important 
 and worthy of being responded to IN DETAIL. Jim has simply not 
 bothered to address that detailed response in his post.
 
 (I had hoped - in each of my affirmatives and negatives -  that 
 by responding to JIMs OWN points that HE raised - he would have 
 some interest in the details )
 
 As much as I have criticized Jim for not responding to the 
 critical points of the argument in all cases - I have to say that 
 this was debate was still a huge leap in productive exchange as 
 compared to the debate with Voyd - where Voyd's response had 
 substance primarily in the entertainment value contained in his 
 ad hominem retorts.
 
 Jim
 Bob attributes to me, his use of John 14:15. I did not quote or 
 use John 14:15 in either my first or second affirmative speeches. 
 So, to save space for more important ideas, I'm going to ignore 
 this statement.
 
 Bob
 Case in point being the John 14:15 case where Christ IN the New 
 Testament (and BEFORE nailing ANYTHING to the cross) states that 
 His followers are to "KEEP my Commandments". "Commandments" are 
 to be defined in the PRE-Cross context and PRE-Acts-through-Jude 
 when reading John 14.
 
 This concept of "Christ's COMMANDMENTS"  is so critical to Jim's 
 point that Christ invented HIS own "law of faith" replacing God's 
 own Moral law, that Jim can't afford to avoid the ONLY text in 
 the NT that gives him a hope of inventing "Christ's LAW". Yet Jim 
 considers this text unimportant and so he "ignores it" even 
 though he has NO  text in NT speaking  of the "LAW of Christ" 
 replacing or doing anything relative to the 10 commandments.
 
 Jim failed to produce even ONE text stating that "the Law of 
 Christ replaces the Law of God" or stating " the Law of Christ IS 
 the LAW of LIFE" or stating "there is actual forgiveness in the 
 LAW of Christ". All of these assertions were made by Jim - yet 
 not a single text was produced with that content. But many texts 
 were produced where Jim ADDED these words to the END of those 
 texts.
 ----------------------------------------------------
 
 Failures of Jim's 5 primary arguments.
 
 Result below shows Jim has abandoned his 5 primary arguments by 
 failing to respond to the devastating rejection of each in 
 scripture.
 
 1. Jim's "duplicate commandment" conjecture.
 a. Jim imagines that Christ came up with a list of 9 replacing 
 duplicate commandments BEFORE John 14.
 - refuted by Jim's own statement - no such list exists AT ALL as a list
 - Jim says you need all of Matt-Jude to even imagine such a list
 - the self-conflicted contradictory conjecture that God abolishes 
 (ends) His own Law at the cross, then restores in exact DUPLICATE 
 what He NEEDED to abolish (except Jim says Christ did not restore 
 Christ's Sabbath HE Claimed as HIS Mark 2:28)stands without a 
 "reason" or "text" in support of it.
 
 b. Jim hopes that we may assume - "What is the Father's - is NOT 
 Christ's" no matter what Christ says to the contrary.
 - refuted by John 17:10 -- all that was the Fathers was explicitly claimed BY Christ
 - Refuted by Jim's own confession that it was CHRIST creating the 
 Holy Seventh day in Gen 2 - it is Christ's OWN day Christ 
 abolishes with the duplicate nine according to Jim.
 - Christ explicitly claims Sabbath is HIS in Mark 2:28 - that is 
 a UNIQUE claim among the 10
 
 c. Jim chooses "END" as the definition for "Fulfill"  - so the 
 Law of Moses fulfilled by Christ is ENDED.
 - refuted by Jim's own confession that "Fulfill" DOESNT end law 
 of Moses (Lev 19:18, Deut 6:5) 
 
 Jim
 (Affirm 02> Remember the two greatest commandments? Those are the 
 only commands that are the same under the gospel as they were 
 under the law of Moses. Read 1 Cor. 13 as a starter.
 
 Bob
 "Royal LAW" James 2 -- "prescriptive" law of Love.
 Which corrupts the entire "fulfill means END" argument Jim makes 
 for prescriptive laws.
 - refuted by Jim's own confession that 9 ENDED commandments must 
 CONTINUE in DUPLICATE form.
 
 d. Jim claims Christ's Creation week Sabbath that REMAINS 
 (CONTINUES) EVEN for NT saints Heb 4- is remaining in an 
 ABOLISHED state - so it no longer CONTINUES as it has been. 
 
 e. Jim supposes that God's New Cov (Jer 31:33) needed to end his 
 own law that defines what sin IS 
 - in order to save/forgive mankind of their DEBT. No real 
 forgiveness before ending God's own law at the cross according to 
 Jim.
 - refuted by Paul in Rom 7 and Eph 6 and Rom 13 and by James in 
 James 2 - as already noted.
 - refuted by Col 2 fact that our "DEBT" "certificate of debt" is 
 nailed to the cross - not God's law.
 - refuted by 1John 2:2 stating that Christ came to pay the debt 
 for SIN - NOT wipe out sins definition - the LAW
 - refuted by list of texts showing full forgiveness, salvation 
 (even taking saints to heaven) in OT preCross - as already shown.
 - refuted by 2Cor 3 detailed review showing that New Cov writes 
 God's law (as it was in Jer 31:33) on  "tablets of the human 
 heart" instead of leaving them external on "tablets of stone".
 
 2. Jim's conjecture that Christ the Creator's  Holy Seventh day 
 did not exist for mankind pre-Sinai.
 a. Jim admits God (in Gen 2) MAKES Holy the Seventh day  -  then 
 Jim hopes it disappears after Gen 2 explicitly defines it and 
 creates it and establishes it as THE Holy Day
 b. Jim admits the REASON for it is that MAN needs rest - then 
 rejects his own confession and says only the Jews needed it.
 c. Jim assumes God forces man into the problem of not being able 
 to distinguish between the HOLY and the common day after God goes 
 to lengths to explicitly MAKE the 7th day and MAKE it Holy Ezek 
 22:26 - A sin according to scripture. Jim seems put God in the 
 position of violating God's OWN Ezek 22 will.
 
 4. Jim's conjecture that (Christ) the Creator's Holy 'Seventh day 
 Creation week Sabbath is not applicable to non-Jews in the "OT".
 refuted by Isaiah 56 regarding Sabbath for Gentiles 
 (Foreigners) Jim hopes that IF Isaiah 56 can be made to reference 
 Jerusalem then we can discount whatever it says about Sabbath AS 
 IF Sabbath could only be kept IN Jerusalem.
 
 5. Jim conjectures that Christ's Holy Seventh Day is not 
 applicable to His NT saints.
 refuted by Heb 4 showing that it continues for NT saints JUST 
 as in the days of David Ps 95
 b. Ignores the fact that NO set of DUPLICATE nine is there by the 
 time of John 14:15 
 statement of Christ that we are to keep the PRE-Cross 
 commandments.
 c. Want's to END the 10 commandments at the cross -  says that 
 since Christ's death the duplicate nine NOW apply - but then 
 NEEDS to work them in as the only ones that apply PRECROSS as 
 well to AVOID the 10 commandments in John 14:15 being given to NT 
 saints.
 
 6. Jim conjectures that Christ's Holy Seventh day is not 
 applicable to ALL mankind EVEN continuing into the New EARTH.
 
 refuted by Isaiah 66 saying that it continues to apply to all 
 mankind in new earth
 ----------------------------------------------------
 
 Summary of my points.
 
 I. Christ the Creator's Holy day pre-Sinai
 A. Christ is God at creation (John 1:1-3, Col 1:15-16)
 B. Christ MADE - His Holy Day at creation and established it as 
 sanctified - set apart - blessed (Gen 2:1-4)
 C. God affirms in Exodus 20:11 that these  Genesis 2 facts did 
 take place and did establish the day as Holy - 
 D. Christ affirms this again in Mark 2:27 saying that the day was 
 MADE for mankind (when MADE) and that mankind was not MADE for 
 the day. (Gen 2 context - the MAKING of them BOTH)
 E. Gen 26:5 God states that his Law/Commandments/statutes existed 
 in Genesis.
 f. Genesis - book of origins does not provide LAW details as in 
 books of law (Exodus-Deut) - yet we know it was sin for Cain to 
 kill Abel (Gen 4) etc- even BEFORE anything mentioned in 
 scripture about killing. Where there is no law - there is no sin 
 (Romans 4)
 G. Some argue that Christ the creator's Holy Seventh day vanished 
 after Gen 2 and did not resurface until Exod 16.
 Of course one could also argue it vanished again from Joshua 
 through 1Kings on that basis - it does not work.
 I. God "MADE it a Holy Day" (qadash) Ex 20:11WHEN He Sanctified 
 it (qadash) Gen 2:3 for ALL mankind (Adam and Eve AT Creation 
 Week) Mark 2:27
 o Sanctify means requires that we KEEP Holy (qadash) Ex 20:8  - 
 what is MADE Holy Ezek 22:26 or it is sin.
 
 2. Christ the Creator's Holy Day from Sinai to the Cross.
 A. Exod 16:   God expected obedience to the 7th day Sabbath 
 before the 10 commandments.
 B Exodus 20:8-11 Language of 4th commandments shows that the Gen 
 2 facts ARE sufficient to establish the Holy Day and Holy Days 
 are to be KEPT Holy.
 C. Ezek 22:26 Failure to distinguish between Holy - Sacred - and 
 common, is Sin. Some argue that God forced Adam into that sin by 
 HIDING information about Christ the Creator's Holy Seventh day 
 from Adam.
 D. Deut 5 takes the Exodus 20 Sinai unit of 10 (40 years later) 
 and ADDS emphasis for the Hebrews on why they should honor God's 
 Law even more devoutly than non-Hebrews since THEY were freed 
 from Egyptian slavery by miracles of God directly.
 E. Is 56:2-7  God stated explicitly that the Sabbath COMMANDMENT 
 is applicable to non-Hebrews. And that His expectation was that 
 HIS sanctuary would be a house of worship for ALL nations.
 F. Is 66: 22-23 God states for OT saints to know - that EVEN into 
 the future - to the New Earth - He still expects Sabbath to apply 
 to ALL MANKIND.
 G. Mark 2:28 Christ states that HE IS THE LORD of the Holy 
 Seventh Day Sabbath of creation week - He IS the Creator.
 H. Matt 5:17-19Christ FULFILLED both predictive laws about 
 Passover and sacrifices AND prescriptive laws about Love for God 
 and Love (Deut 6:5) for our Neighbor (Lev 19:18), 10 commandments 
 about worshipping no false gods.  Prescriptive laws contain no 
 component saying they must be abolished once one person acts 
 righteously - they are eternal.
 
 H. John 14:15 Christ commands His followers to keep his PRE-CROSS 
 Commandments
 J. John 17:10 Christ states that ALL that the Father Has are HIS 
 - He claims them as His own.
 K. Matt 22  Christ states that His OT laws/prophets/WORD  is 
 BASED on the Law of Love Deut 6:5 that He FULFILLED perfectly.
 L. Matt 27 - Christ's followers were STILL keeping His day (the 
 Day He was LORD of) at His Crucifixion AFTER His death.
 
 3. Christ the Creator's Holy day AFTER the Cross.
 A  Matt 28 - Christ commands His followers to teach those things 
 He ALREADY taught them while on earth (as reported by Matthew 
 decades later).
 B. Eph 6:1-3 God's 10 commandment unit remains in tact - with the 
 5th commandment being the "first commandment with a promise"
 C. James 2 God's 10 commandments called the "law of liberty" in 
 the NT, and Deut 6:5 the "Royal Law".
 E. Rev 14:7 God's people are still called to worship the creator 
 today who "created the heavens and the earth and the seas"... as 
 we see in Exod 20:11
 Y. Col 2:Christ paid our debt and "nailed our certificate of 
 debt" to the cross Romans 7, Gal 3, God's law still defines what 
 sin is and still places all men under sin - until they turn to 
 Christ "when faith comes"
 Z. Heb 4 - There REMAINS therefore the same promise and the same 
 Creation week Sabbath for the people of God "TODAY" as we find 
 in Ps 95:7
 *.  Heb 7-10 make it clear that the only laws ended were those 
 relating to animal sacrifices
 **. 2Cor 3 shows us that the 10 commandments written on tablets 
 of stone - are written on the tablets of the heart in the New Cov 
 (Heb 8, 10, Jer 31:33) Acts 17:2   Sabbath the Only day presented 
 with week after week details of meetings for bible study in the 
 NT - Sabbath. (Acts 13:42)
 
 4. The Gospel was REAL pre-Cross for OT saints.
 A. Heb 11 provides the hall of faith - giants of faith held up as 
 examples to NT saints and some of whom taken directly to heaven.
 B. Heb 4:1-2They had the Gospel preached to them - "just as we 
 also"
 D. Rom 11:17-22   We are grafted into the place from which they 
 fell
 D. Matt 9:2their pre-cross forgiveness was real Isaiah 6:7, Num 
 14:19, Ps 78:38 PS 32:5, Luke 7:48
 =====================================================
 
 Though anyone paying attention to the details of this entire 
 rebuttal can see that Jim's affirmative was shown to be without 
 any support at all in scripture - I still DO applaud Jim for 
 putting up the best possible defense given that no text actually 
 can be found saying "Christ's law replaces God's Law" or "Sunday 
 is blessed by God as the weekday set aside for worship" OR EVEN 
 "the Sabbath DOES NOT REMAIN for God's people".
 
 Jim has stayed on topic and has pressed his points - even though 
 he had little or nothing to go on in scripture as support for his 
 views. Christ slammed the door in Jim's POV by stating to NT 
 Christians that we ARE TO KEEP the PRE-CROSS Commandments (John 
 14:15) AND by AFFIRMING that WHEN the SABBATH WAS MADE (Gen 2) it 
 was MADE (by Christ the Creator) FOR MANKIND.
 
 With NO text containing ANYTHING like an ENDORSEMENT from God 
 "BLESSING" weekday ONE and MAKING IT HOLY - Jim had only man's 
 tradition left - hoping to find some PRACTICE that might show a 
 TRADITION of weekday ONE services.
 
 I have engaged in debates on this subject a "number of times" and 
 Jim has presented the few arguments that exist for his POV (in 
 the vacuum of texts that can be found for  weekday ONE) as well 
 as any I have seen. 
 
 Though  (as I have stated repeatedly) he might have been more 
 direct in actually responding to the details of the points raised 
 regarding Gal 3, Heb 7, Heb 4, Exodus 20, Gen 2, Col 2, Isaiah 
 56, Is 66etc. He did provide some response there but avoided 
 addressing the detailed points exposed when the compelling review 
 was done showing endorsement of Christ the Creator's OWN Holy Day 
 MADE Holy in Gen 2. 
 
 And so as pointed out above - the overwhelming case for Christ 
 the Creator's Holy Day MADE for MANKIND - stands firm.